JW's: The disappearing act of "Me" in John 14:14

[Faber]

John 14:14
If you ask Me anything in My name, I will do it. (NASB)

A. This passage teaches that the Lord Jesus is the proper recipient of prayer.
1. Hans Bietenhard: The unity of the Son with the Father finds expressions in the fact that prayer in the name of Jesus can be directed to either Father or Son (TDNT 5:276, onoma).
2. See more citations by Nick Norelli as found here:
https://rdtwot.wordpress.com/2011/07/13 ... john-1414/

B. In the 'New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures' by the Watchtower John 14:14 reads:
If you ask anything in my name, I will do it.
https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/l/r1/lp-e?q=John+14%3A14

C. In their 'Kingdom Interlinear Translation of the Greek Scriptures' the "Me" appears in the Greek text of John 14:14.

D. Since the Jehovah's Witnesses teach that the Lord Jesus is not to be prayed to my question to any Jehovah's Witness is this:
Is there any other instance anywhere in the 'Kingdom Interlinear Translation of the Greek Scriptures' where a Greek word was not translated into English that would alter the meaning of the passage to the level it does in John 14:14?

[Faber]

Despite the controversy of if 'me' should be in that scripture or not, in context I don't see where this saying we are pray to Jesus. The word prayer or pray doesn't even come up in the whole chapter.

Even though the word "prayer" doesn't appear by asking Jesus it means praying to Him.

The fact that you would write "Even if we were to ask Jesus directly..." would demonstrate that He is God.
viewtopic.php?t=32480&start=0

The question from the OP remains unanswered:
Is there any other instance anywhere in the 'Kingdom Interlinear Translation of the Greek Scriptures' where a Greek word was not translated into English that would alter the meaning of the passage to the level it does in John 14:14?

[JehovahsWitness]

Even though the word "prayer" doesn't appear by asking Jesus it means praying to Him.

So when Pilate asked Jesus if he were a king, he (Pilate) was "praying" to him?

JW

[Faber]

That's a different context from what took place in John 14.

In Luke 9:40 the same Greek word (deomai) is used in Luke 10:2.
In Luke 9:40 it doesn't mean prayer but in Luke 10:2 it does.

Context!

You have not been able to supply any passage from the 'Kingdom Interlinear Translation of the Greek Scriptures' where a Greek word was not translated into English that would alter the meaning of the passage to the level it does in John 14:14.
It is not surprising that the Watchtower would do this here and not anywhere else since they forbid (the Bible certainly doesn't) prayer to the Lord Jesus.

[JehovahsWitness]

You have not been able to supply any passage from the 'Kingdom Interlinear Translation of the Greek Scriptures' where a Greek word was not translated into English that would alter the meaning of the passage to the level it does in John 14:14.
It is not surprising that the Watchtower would do this here and not anywhere else since they forbid (the Bible certainly doesn't) prayer to the Lord Jesus.

This is garbled English and is very close to being incomprehensible; so no, I have not been able to supply anything in response, above and beyond what I have already posted on the general topic (see link below).

Respect,

JW



QUESTION: Why does the "me" of John 14:14 appear in the Jehovah's Witness WBTS Greek Interlinear but not in their bible translation?
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 060#864060

[Faber]

No such passage exists. Instead of going by what even their own Greek text reads they delete the word "me" in their version of the Bible because it proves the Lord Jesus is the proper recipient of prayer.

[onewithhim]

Despite the controversy of if 'me' should be in that scripture or not, in context I don't see where this saying we are pray to Jesus. The word prayer or pray doesn't even come up in the whole chapter.

Even though the word "prayer" doesn't appear by asking Jesus it means praying to Him.

The fact that you would write "Even if we were to ask Jesus directly..." would demonstrate that He is God.

No, not at all. People pray to Mary and the saints (even though there is no such allowance in the scriptures), yet they do not think they are praying to God. Where do you get YOUR information, that you are praying to God when you pray to Jesus?

[Faber]

Even they don't think they are praying to God the fact that they are praying to anyone else demonstrates that they are attributing to the recipient that which belongs to God "alone."
See here:
viewtopic.php?t=32480&start=0

The above also answers your question.

[onewithhim]

Even they don't think they are praying to God the fact that they are praying to anyone else demonstrates that they are attributing to the recipient that which belongs to God "alone."

Yes I agree, and that shows that they are in error. Just as you are in error for saying that it is acceptable to pray to Jesus. He said to pray to the Father (Matt.6:9) and nowhere in the Scriptures is it said that we can pray to anyone else. You have said that any prayers that go to anyone other than God are giving to someone else "that which belongs to God alone."

Jesus said that he was God's SON and not God. He said that the Father was "the only true God." (John 17:3) How can you argue with his own words? You quibble about one little word in John 14:14???

[Faber]

That one little word ("Me") in John 14:14 destroys the false belief that the Lord Jesus should not be prayed to.

[onewithhim]

That one little word ("Me") in John 14:14 destroys the false belief that the Lord Jesus should not be prayed to.

So say you. Other people here say that it doesn't change Jesus' own teaching at Matthew 6:9 where he tells us to pray to the Father.