Hebrews 1:10
And: “You, LORD, in the beginning laid the foundation of the earth,
And the heavens are the work of Your hands. (NKJV)
Reasoning from the Scriptures: Why does Hebrews 1:10-12 quote Psalm 102:25-27 and apply it to the Son, when the psalm says that it is addressed to God? Because the Son is the one through whom God performed the creative works there described by the psalmist. (See Colossians 1:15, 16; Proverbs 8:22, 27-30.) (Trinity)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1101989276
Question
Do the Jehovah's Witnesses realize that by applying Psalm 102:25-27 to the Lord Jesus in Hebrews 1:10 that this means He is Jehovah?
JW's - Jesus is Jehovah (Hebrews 1:10)
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Re: JW's - Jesus is Jehovah (Hebrews 1:10)
Post #2[Replying to post 1 by Faber]
The link you provided makes no reference to Psalms 102. If you claim it does you will have to copy the said phrase into your post so we can all read it.
JW
The link you provided makes no reference to Psalms 102. If you claim it does you will have to copy the said phrase into your post so we can all read it.
JW
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"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681
"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8
Re: JW's - Jesus is Jehovah (Hebrews 1:10)
Post #3Yes it did.JehovahsWitness wrote: [Replying to post 1 by Faber]
The link you provided makes no reference to Psalms 102.
Highlighted for you in orange.
https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/110 ... 3A25&p=par
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Re: JW's - Jesus is Jehovah (Hebrews 1:10)
Post #4[Replying to post 1 by Faber]
QUESTION: Why does Hebrews 1:10-12 quote Psalm 102:25-27 and apply it to the Son, when the psalm says that it is addressed to God?
Because the Son is the one through whom God performed the creative works there described by the psalmist. (See Colossians 1:15, 16; Proverbs 8:22, 27-30.) It should be observed in Hebrews 1:5b that a quotation is made from 2 Samuel 7:14 and applied to the Son of God. Although that text had its first application to Solomon, the later application of it to Jesus Christ does not mean that Solomon and Jesus are the same. Jesus is “greater than Solomon� and carries out a work foreshadowed by Solomon.—Luke 11:31.
QUESTION: Why does Hebrews 1:10-12 quote Psalm 102:25-27 and apply it to the Son, when the psalm says that it is addressed to God?
Because the Son is the one through whom God performed the creative works there described by the psalmist. (See Colossians 1:15, 16; Proverbs 8:22, 27-30.) It should be observed in Hebrews 1:5b that a quotation is made from 2 Samuel 7:14 and applied to the Son of God. Although that text had its first application to Solomon, the later application of it to Jesus Christ does not mean that Solomon and Jesus are the same. Jesus is “greater than Solomon� and carries out a work foreshadowed by Solomon.—Luke 11:31.
INDEX: More bible based ANSWERS
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681
"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681
"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8
Post #5
Robert Bowman and J. Ed Komoszweski: The problem with this argument is evident from the Watchtower's own observation that "Jesus is 'greater than Solomon' and carries out a work foreshadowed by Solomon." This is quite accurate: Solomon is a type of Christ, which means that what Psalm 45 says about Solomon (or any other Israelite king) applies to him only partially or in a limited way; the one to whom its exalted language actually applies is Christ. But this way of understanding the use use of a Psalm quotation will not work in Hebrews 1:10-12. It makes no sense at all to treat the Lord God (Jehovah) as a type of Christ! (Putting Jesus in His Place: The Case for the Deity of Christ, page 193)
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Post #6
Faber wrote:It makes no sense at all to treat the Lord God (Jehovah) as a type of Christ! (Putting Jesus in His Place: The Case for the Deity of Christ, page 193)
A "type" represents the "antitype". This is not what the Watchtower is saying (please re-read the passage above for clarification.
The above quote is NOT saying Jehovah is "a type" for Jesus, it is saying the that fulfillment of the Psalm is through Jesus, ie that Jesus is the instrument through which the subject of Psalms 102 is fulfilled and thus JESUS is a fitting representative of Jehovah (the subject of the Psalm).
JW
Last edited by JehovahsWitness on Tue May 23, 2017 4:34 am, edited 1 time in total.
INDEX: More bible based ANSWERS
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681
"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681
"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8