Why believe in NT Gospels as "Word of God"?

[paarsurrey1]

Not to speak of God the NT Gospels do not have anything from Jesus directly. All of its contents are third person narratives. Right, please?
Regards

_________
Post 35 and Post 36, thread "Do we have first person narrative/s from Jesus? "

[onewithhim]

[Replying to post 1 by paarsurrey1]

If the gospels have nothing from God why does the Quran say

SURAH 3:2
"He has revealed to you the BOOK with the truth [...] He has already revealed the TORAH and the GOSPELS for the guidance of men"

Obviously if God has revealed the gospels for the guidance of men they must be truth whether Jesus wrote them himself or not. Unless the Quran is ... wrong!

I give first few verses of chapter 3 of Quran for the context of the verse quoted above:

[3:1] In the name of Allah, the Gracious, the Merciful.
[3:2] Alif Lam Mim.
[3:3] Allah is He beside Whom there is no God, the Living, the Self-Subsisting and All-Sustaining.
[3:4] He has sent down to thee the Book containing the truth and fulfilling that which precedes it; and He sent down the Torah and the Gospel
[3:5] Before this, as a guidance to the people; and He has sent down the Discrimination. Surely, those who deny the Signs of Allah shall have a severe punishment. And Allah is Mighty, Possessor of the power to requite
https://www.alislam.org/quran/search2/s ... r.php?ch=3

In verses [3:43] the book is Quran- the Revelation that has been sent down on Muhammad by One-True-God. Torah is the Revelation sent down on Moses and Gospels or Injeel, the Revelation sent down on Jesus. The “Discrimination� sent down are the Teachings in verses in Quran that tell exactly what was actually revealed on Moses and Jesus originally not what the Jews and Christians describe now as Torah or Gospels (OT and NT).

The salient features of the teachings send down on Moses and Jesus has been given in Quran in many a chapter/verses and what their followers had done to the scriptures and the teachings sent down on Moses and Jesus.

The internal evidence of the Torah and Gospels speaks loudly that the pristine revelation sent down on Moses and Jesus have not reached us exactly as was sent down.

Right, please?
Regards

You are assuming a lot. As a thinking human being, looking for truth, I don't see anything in the Torah or Gospels that might lead me to suspect that they are not what Jehovah intended mankind to know. Would you state precisely what it is in the Torah and Gospels that "speak loudly" to the inferiority of their messages?

[paarsurrey1]

[Replying to post 1 by paarsurrey1]

If the gospels have nothing from God why does the Quran say

SURAH 3:2
"He has revealed to you the BOOK with the truth [...] He has already revealed the TORAH and the GOSPELS for the guidance of men"

Obviously if God has revealed the gospels for the guidance of men they must be truth whether Jesus wrote them himself or not. Unless the Quran is ... wrong!

I give first few verses of chapter 3 of Quran for the context of the verse quoted above:

[3:1] In the name of Allah, the Gracious, the Merciful.
[3:2] Alif Lam Mim.
[3:3] Allah is He beside Whom there is no God, the Living, the Self-Subsisting and All-Sustaining.
[3:4] He has sent down to thee the Book containing the truth and fulfilling that which precedes it; and He sent down the Torah and the Gospel
[3:5] Before this, as a guidance to the people; and He has sent down the Discrimination. Surely, those who deny the Signs of Allah shall have a severe punishment. And Allah is Mighty, Possessor of the power to requite
https://www.alislam.org/quran/search2/s ... r.php?ch=3

In verses [3:43] the book is Quran- the Revelation that has been sent down on Muhammad by One-True-God. Torah is the Revelation sent down on Moses and Gospels or Injeel, the Revelation sent down on Jesus. The “Discrimination� sent down are the Teachings in verses in Quran that tell exactly what was actually revealed on Moses and Jesus originally not what the Jews and Christians describe now as Torah or Gospels (OT and NT).

The salient features of the teachings send down on Moses and Jesus has been given in Quran in many a chapter/verses and what their followers had done to the scriptures and the teachings sent down on Moses and Jesus.

The internal evidence of the Torah and Gospels speaks loudly that the pristine revelation sent down on Moses and Jesus have not reached us exactly as was sent down.

Right, please?
Regards

You are assuming a lot. As a thinking human being, looking for truth, I don't see anything in the Torah or Gospels that might lead me to suspect that they are not what Jehovah intended mankind to know. Would you state precisely what it is in the Torah and Gospels that "speak loudly" to the inferiority of their messages?

Gospels

It is neither written by Jehovah nor by Jesus nor dictated by Jesus, please.
Right, please?
Regards

[polonius]

[Replying to post 1 by paarsurrey1]

If the gospels have nothing from God why does the Quran say

SURAH 3:2
"He has revealed to you the BOOK with the truth [...] He has already revealed the TORAH and the GOSPELS for the guidance of men"

Obviously if God has revealaed the gopels for the guidance of men they must be truth whether Jesus wrote them himself or not. Unless the Quran is ... wrong!

RESPONSE: Are you saying that the Quran is divinely inspired?

[marco]

It is neither written by Jehovah nor by Jesus nor dictated by Jesus, please.
Right, please?

The claim that the Quran was dictated by God is an astonishing one. We would expect the words so dictated to be remarkably divine. Some might be, in their original, but the general text bears all the marks of a human hand and mind - and a mind set in the 7th century.

The battle of Badr has God sending an army of angels into a skirmish between some Arab tribesmen. Heaven has fresh water springs in it, remarkably suiting the requirements of desert folk; and green couches on which lie lovely maidens. Hell has boiling water that is poured over people's heads. Does all this sound plausibly divine?

The gospels, giving their lessons of love for the most part, seem inspired by good will. I am not sure what the intention is behind the Quran. Its immediate and original purpose was to enlist support for Muhammad in his fights.

[paarsurrey1]

It is neither written by Jehovah nor by Jesus nor dictated by Jesus, please.
Right, please?

The claim that the Quran was dictated by God is an astonishing one. We would expect the words so dictated to be remarkably divine. Some might be, in their original, but the general text bears all the marks of a human hand and mind - and a mind set in the 7th century.

The battle of Badr has God sending an army of angels into a skirmish between some Arab tribesmen. Heaven has fresh water springs in it, remarkably suiting the requirements of desert folk; and green couches on which lie lovely maidens. Hell has boiling water that is poured over people's heads. Does all this sound plausibly divine?

The gospels, giving their lessons of love for the most part, seem inspired by good will. I am not sure what the intention is behind the Quran. Its immediate and original purpose was to enlist support for Muhammad in his fights.

The gospels, giving their lessons of love for the most part, seem inspired by good will.

What is inspiration by good will, please? Kindly define it, please?
Regards

[paarsurrey1]

[Replying to post 1 by paarsurrey1]

If the gospels have nothing from God why does the Quran say

SURAH 3:2
"He has revealed to you the BOOK with the truth [...] He has already revealed the TORAH and the GOSPELS for the guidance of men"

Obviously if God has revealaed the gopels for the guidance of men they must be truth whether Jesus wrote them himself or not. Unless the Quran is ... wrong!

RESPONSE: Are you saying that the Quran is divinely inspired?

Quran is revealed by One-True-God, word for word and letter for letter:

[29:48] And in like manner have We sent down the Book to thee, so those to whom We have given true knowledge of the Book believe in it (the Qur’an); and of these Meccans also there are some who believe in it. And none but the ungrateful deny Our Signs.
[29:49] And thou didst not recite any Book before it, nor didst thou write one with thy right hand; in that case the liars would have doubted.
[29:50] Nay, it is a collection of clear Signs in the hearts of those who are given knowledge. And none but the wrongdoers deny Our Signs.
https://www.alislam.org/quran/search2/s ... 9&verse=48

I quoted just some verses from one chapter of Quran, as this thread is about "Why believe in NT Gospels as "Word of God"?"
Right, please?

Regards

[marco]

It is neither written by Jehovah nor by Jesus nor dictated by Jesus, please.
Right, please?

The claim that the Quran was dictated by God is an astonishing one. We would expect the words so dictated to be remarkably divine. Some might be, in their original, but the general text bears all the marks of a human hand and mind - and a mind set in the 7th century.

The battle of Badr has God sending an army of angels into a skirmish between some Arab tribesmen. Heaven has fresh water springs in it, remarkably suiting the requirements of desert folk; and green couches on which lie lovely maidens. Hell has boiling water that is poured over people's heads. Does all this sound plausibly divine?

The gospels, giving their lessons of love for the most part, seem inspired by good will. I am not sure what the intention is behind the Quran. Its immediate and original purpose was to enlist support for Muhammad in his fights.

The gospels, giving their lessons of love for the most part, seem inspired by good will.

What is inspiration by good will, please? Kindly define it, please?
Regards

Possibly the carelessness of my phraseology has caused confusion. I simply meant that the gospel writers, if inspired at all, had good intentions. They wanted to make people behave in a nicer way: feed the hungry, help the poor etc.

Since this is all you've commented on, am I to believe that my review of the Quran meets with your approval? Best wishes.

[onewithhim]

[Replying to post 1 by paarsurrey1]

If the gospels have nothing from God why does the Quran say

SURAH 3:2
"He has revealed to you the BOOK with the truth [...] He has already revealed the TORAH and the GOSPELS for the guidance of men"

Obviously if God has revealed the gospels for the guidance of men they must be truth whether Jesus wrote them himself or not. Unless the Quran is ... wrong!

I give first few verses of chapter 3 of Quran for the context of the verse quoted above:

[3:1] In the name of Allah, the Gracious, the Merciful.
[3:2] Alif Lam Mim.
[3:3] Allah is He beside Whom there is no God, the Living, the Self-Subsisting and All-Sustaining.
[3:4] He has sent down to thee the Book containing the truth and fulfilling that which precedes it; and He sent down the Torah and the Gospel
[3:5] Before this, as a guidance to the people; and He has sent down the Discrimination. Surely, those who deny the Signs of Allah shall have a severe punishment. And Allah is Mighty, Possessor of the power to requite
https://www.alislam.org/quran/search2/s ... r.php?ch=3

In verses [3:43] the book is Quran- the Revelation that has been sent down on Muhammad by One-True-God. Torah is the Revelation sent down on Moses and Gospels or Injeel, the Revelation sent down on Jesus. The “Discrimination� sent down are the Teachings in verses in Quran that tell exactly what was actually revealed on Moses and Jesus originally not what the Jews and Christians describe now as Torah or Gospels (OT and NT).

The salient features of the teachings send down on Moses and Jesus has been given in Quran in many a chapter/verses and what their followers had done to the scriptures and the teachings sent down on Moses and Jesus.

The internal evidence of the Torah and Gospels speaks loudly that the pristine revelation sent down on Moses and Jesus have not reached us exactly as was sent down.

Right, please?
Regards

You are assuming a lot. As a thinking human being, looking for truth, I don't see anything in the Torah or Gospels that might lead me to suspect that they are not what Jehovah intended mankind to know. Would you state precisely what it is in the Torah and Gospels that "speak loudly" to the inferiority of their messages?

Gospels

It is neither written by Jehovah nor by Jesus nor dictated by Jesus, please.
Right, please?
Regards

Sorry, but you are evading my question. Would you state precisely what it is in the Torah and the Gospels that "speak loudly" to the inferiority of their messages? We are talking about the MESSAGES here, not who wrote them.

[onewithhim]

[Replying to post 1 by paarsurrey1]

If the gospels have nothing from God why does the Quran say

SURAH 3:2
"He has revealed to you the BOOK with the truth [...] He has already revealed the TORAH and the GOSPELS for the guidance of men"

Obviously if God has revealaed the gopels for the guidance of men they must be truth whether Jesus wrote them himself or not. Unless the Quran is ... wrong!

RESPONSE: Are you saying that the Quran is divinely inspired?

Quran is revealed by One-True-God, word for word and letter for letter:

[29:48] And in like manner have We sent down the Book to thee, so those to whom We have given true knowledge of the Book believe in it (the Qur’an); and of these Meccans also there are some who believe in it. And none but the ungrateful deny Our Signs.
[29:49] And thou didst not recite any Book before it, nor didst thou write one with thy right hand; in that case the liars would have doubted.
[29:50] Nay, it is a collection of clear Signs in the hearts of those who are given knowledge. And none but the wrongdoers deny Our Signs.
https://www.alislam.org/quran/search2/s ... 9&verse=48

I quoted just some verses from one chapter of Quran, as this thread is about "Why believe in NT Gospels as "Word of God"?"
Right, please?

Regards

You have continued to dance around (ignore) the reference to Surah 3:2 (if I remember correctly). It states that the Bible was given to mankind by Allah, and that answers your question as to why a Muslim should believe in the Christian Greek Scriptures (NT) as the Word of God.

[onewithhim]

paarsurrey....Would you kindly succinctly respond to posts #28 and #29 please?