o does is it referring to the covenant, or does it mean both? I've heard people use it both ways, but it isn't clear what the ramifications are for each scenario.
For example, when Paul states that he is "under the law to Christ" it seems to mean that he still continues to sin, and must therefore depend upon Christ's sacrifice to cover his sin. However, he is therefore still also under the covenant due to the fact that if he weren't part of that covenant, he would necessarily not be able to depend upon a sacrifice that covers those transgressions of that law covenant.
Put another way, when a pagan commits the sin of refusing to participate in a pagan orgy in honor of their deity, Christ' sacrifice doesn't cover their sin.
Paul also makes the distinction of being "under the law" verses " outside the law" or "lawlessness". Neither outcome is necessarily a good one.
Does "under the law" refer to the penalty of the l
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