OK, good, we are making progress. The passage you quoted from Jeremiah 31:4,22 personifies Israel as an individual person. Why do you then argue that Isaiah 53 must be referring to a man rather than the nation of Israel? It was not uncommon for Jewish and later Christian writers to represent nations as individuals. Another example of their doing so is Revelation 17:4-6 in which the hated Roman empire is personified as a "whore."1213 wrote:Normally, when Bible speaks of nation, or nation of Israel, it uses female, not male form...
So we have established that at the very least it is very plausible that Isaiah 53 is speaking of Israel rather than some individual man.
It appears that you are changing your mind. You were arguing that you thought it unlikely that Israel would be represented as a man, yet you seem to have no problem believing Israel could and in fact was represented by a woman. Why is representation as a woman so believable and as a man so hard to believe?Nations are in the Bible usually females, not males.
Let's read the Bible to see what it "tells." All you need to do is read Isaiah 53 in context. Chapters 52 and 54 of Isaiah are clearly Isaiah prophesying to the nation of Israel. In fact, in Isaiah 54:1 Isaiah is again personifying Israel as an individual person--in this case a woman. But my main point is that if you read Isaiah 53 and the surrounding chapters, then it should become clear that we are being told a prophecy about Israel. If you insist that chapter 53 is a prophecy about some future messiah, then it does not fit the context of what Isaiah is writing. Why would Isaiah write about Israel, then jump to a completely different topic about a messiah, and then immediately go back to writing about Israel?Even though I respect Jewish scholars, I rather believe what the Bible tells.
It was you who said in post 7: "...Jesus has been right from the beginning." And you are correct: the bible doesn't say Jesus suffered from the beginning; that's my point. Isaiah is speaking about somebody who has already suffered, and since Jesus never suffered until he came to the earth from the sky centuries after Isaiah was written, then Isaiah could not have been writing about Jesus.But where was it said â€œsuffered from the beginningâ€�?
Sorry, but you are wrong. There are many New-Testament passages that have inflamed hatred for Jews. For example, Matthew 27:25:One cannot show even one anti-Jewish sentiment in the New Testament.
Christian have spilled that blood on Jews and their children for almost two thousand years.Then the people as a whole answered, â€œHis blood be on us and on our children!â€�