Are the biblical writings the word of a god?

[SallyF]

“ALL Scripture is inspired of God.� These words at 2 Timothy 3:16 identify God, whose name is Jehovah, as the Author and Inspirer of the Holy Scriptures.

https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1101990061


Whoever it was that wrote 2 Timothy 3:16 has made this claim.


How may we objectively determine that they are telling the truth?


How may we objectively determine what constitutes Jehovah-inspired "scripture"?

[William]

[Replying to post 1 by SallyF]

“ALL Scripture is inspired of God.� These words at 2 Timothy 3:16 identify God, whose name is Jehovah, as the Author and Inspirer of the Holy Scriptures.

Firstly - There is no mention by the writer of the Timothy script, that 'God' = "Jehovah".

Secondly - were does the Timothy script claim that Jehovah authored 'the holy scriptures'?

Whoever it was that wrote 2 Timothy 3:16 has made this claim.

Rather it appears that The JW Organization make said claim, at least according to your source...

How may we objectively determine that they are telling the truth?

It is faith based belief. Truth is not necessarily necessary in regard to faith based belief. What is necessary is that one has faith that what one puts faith in, is the truth.

It can be objectively verified as the truth, that the JW Organisation claims that Jehovah wrote the script. That's about it as far as objective truth can be determined on the matter.

How may we objectively determine what constitutes Jehovah-inspired "scripture"?

It is not possible for individuate consciousnesses to determine the truth about anything of such nature, in an objective manner, even if many altogether agree to believe in faith that it is 'the truth', it is still subjective determination, and as such, not necessarily the actual truth.

[benchwarmer]

“ALL Scripture is inspired of God.� These words at 2 Timothy 3:16 identify God, whose name is Jehovah, as the Author and Inspirer of the Holy Scriptures.

https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1101990061


Whoever it was that wrote 2 Timothy 3:16 has made this claim.


How may we objectively determine that they are telling the truth?


How may we objectively determine what constitutes Jehovah-inspired "scripture"?

There are way more questions that need to be answered first and quickly show this claim is pointless.

First: What is defined as 'scripture'? The document that contains the claim? If so, that limits it to 2 Timothy. Unless this 'scripture' is defined in 2 Timothy, we are at a loss two words into the claim. In fact, if one were to go completely literal, then ALL documents claimed by ANYONE would have to be included in this claim. That's unlikely what is meant, but given there is no clarification ...

Second: "of God". What god? Do we have objective evidence of this god? Thousands of them have been proposed. Without any verifiable evidence of the one being talked about, we have another pointless bit of information.

Third: Your mention of Jehovah means someone (you, your source, it's not clear) has not actually read 2 Timothy. I see no mention of Jehovah. I do see Jesus Christ a few times in context.

In conclusion, the question is unanswerable even if some will pretend to have the truth. The most likely truth is that all scripture is the word of various humans given that only humans have been observed to write anything that ended up in religious literature.

[JehovahsWitness]

What is defined as 'scripture'?

SCRIPTURE(S)

The sacred writings of God’s Word. This expression occurs only in the Christian Greek Scriptures.​—Lu 24:27; 2Ti 3:16.


SOURCE: Glossery NWT
https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1001077273

SCRIPTURE

As used in the Christian Greek Scriptures, the Greek word gra·pheʹ (“a writing�) refers only to the sacred writings in God’s Word the Bible. There were other documents used by the writers of both the Hebrew and the Greek Scriptures, such as official public genealogical records, histories, and so forth, but these were not regarded as inspired or on an equal level with the writings recognized as canonical. Even the apostles may have written other letters to certain congregations. For example, Paul’s statement at 1 Corinthians 5:9: “In my letter I wrote you,� implies that he wrote a previous letter to the Corinthians, one that is not now existent. Such writings evidently were not preserved by God’s holy spirit for the Christian congregation because they were essential only to those to whom they were addressed.

The Greek word gramʹma, denoting a letter, or character of the alphabet, is drawn from the verb graʹpho. Used in the sense of “document,� it is at times rendered “scripture� in some translations, “writing� in others. At John 5:47 and 2 Timothy 3:15, the word is used with reference to inspired “writings� of the Hebrew Scriptures.​—See CHRISTIAN GREEK SCRIPTURES; HEBREW SCRIPTURES.



SOURCE: Insight on the Scriptuturss Vol I
https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1200003860

RELATED POSTS

Which is the best bible translation?
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 898#960898

How do we know the bible (canon) is the word of God?
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 255#840255

What is meant by " scripture" as used in 2 Timothy 3:16?
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 074#961074

Why are there so many translations of the bible?
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 791#851791

FURTHER READING: Is the bible inspired of God?
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 015#868015

[JehovahsWitness]

[Replying to post 3 by benchwarmer]

2 TIMOTHY 3:16

All Scripture is inspired of God and beneficial for teaching+ for reproving, for setting things straight, for disciplining in righteousness

QUESTION Which God is the writer of Timothy refering to?


♦ANSWER: YHWH , the God of Abraham and the God worshipped by Jesus the Christ . The first line of the book identifies the writer as {qoute} "Paul, an apostle of Christ". There is little doubt the Paul here is indeed the Jewish writer Paul of Tarsus, whose exploits figure in the bible book of Acts.

This being the case it would mean the writer was indeed refering the god of the Jews was (YHWH) in 2 Timothy 3 verse 16. Indeed in 2 Timothy chapter 2, the writer alludes to Isaiah 26:13 in saying “Let everyone calling on the name of Jehovah* renounce unrighteousness� so there is no reason to doubt the God of 2 Timothy 3:16 is indeed the God of Abraham YHWH (Jehovah).

* For an in depth discussion on The Divine Name in the Christian Greek Scriptures see link below
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 001#961001





RELATED POSTS

How do we objectively determine whose version of God is NOT false? [ OP to this thread]
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 912#960912

How can one objectively determine if God even exists at all?
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 920#960920

Who is the TRUE God?
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 825#960825

How can one objectively determine if the God of the bible (YHWH) is the True God?
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 926#960926

Why is JEHOVAH (YHWH) called in the bible THE Living God?
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 997#940997

Go to other posts related to...

THE BIBLE , GOD and ... THE DIVINE NAME ,

[ttruscott]

Whoever it was that wrote 2 Timothy 3:16 has made this claim.

Obviously if you believe the claim, GOD had this written.

[Tcg]

Whoever it was that wrote 2 Timothy 3:16 has made this claim.

Obviously if you believe the claim, GOD had this written.

This is as helpful as saying if one believes this is true, they believe it is true.


The OP asks this regarding the truth of this claim:

• "How may we objectively determine that they are telling the truth?"

Your response provides no help in answering this question.



Tcg

[William]

[Replying to post 5 by JehovahsWitness]

2 Timothy chapter 2, the writer alludes to Isaiah 26:13 in saying “Let everyone calling on the name of Jehovah* renounce unrighteousness� so there is no reason to doubt the God of 2 Timothy 3:16 is indeed the God of Abraham YHWH (Jehovah).

If this were so, there would be no reason at all why Jesus, - let alone all the NT authors - would not have simply and clearly referred to their GOD as "Jehovah". If it was Jehovah they were speaking of, why then did they just not refer to that GOD by that name?

I mean, if 8 million odd members of the JW Organization can do so without any difficulty, why did these biblical authors of the NT refrain from doing so themselves?

[Tcg]

If this were so, there would be no reason at all why Jesus, - let alone all the NT authors - would not have simply and clearly referred to their GOD as "Jehovah".

Well, nothing other than the fact that the English language had not yet been developed. The name Jehovah was created 5 or 6 centuries after the books of the NT.


It's no surprise the authors of the various books later to be compiled into the NT didn't use a word that had yet to be invented.



Tcg

[William]

[Replying to post 9 by Tcg]

Well, nothing other than the fact that the English language had not yet been developed. The name Jehovah was created 5 or 6 centuries after the books of the NT.

Really? I did not know that. So what does that mean in relation to what I am arguing?

Is 'Jehovah' an English word?