Why would Luke word it this way?

Exploring the details of Christianity

Moderator: Moderators

Elijah John
Savant
Posts: 12235
Joined: Mon Oct 28, 2013 8:23 pm
Location: New England
Has thanked: 11 times
Been thanked: 16 times

Why would Luke word it this way?

Post #1

Post by Elijah John »

Acts 2:22-24 New International Version (NIV)
22 “Fellow Israelites, listen to this: Jesus of Nazareth was a man accredited by God to you by miracles, wonders and signs, which God did among you through him, as you yourselves know. 23 This man was handed over to you by God’s deliberate plan and foreknowledge; and you, with the help of wicked men,[a] put him to death by nailing him to the cross. 24 But God raised him from the dead, freeing him from the agony of death, because it was impossible for death to keep its hold on him.
Note, in this passage Luke never makes the Trinitarian distinction of referring to God as "Father" and Jesus as "God the Son". Instead, Luke has Peter referring to God only as "God" and Jesus as a "man", making a clear distinction between the two.

For debate, if Jesus was God, or if Luke and Peter believed that Jesus was God, why would either of them word it this way in this passage from Acts, making a clear distinction between God and the man Jesus?
My theological positions:

-God created us in His image, not the other way around.
-The Bible is redeemed by it's good parts.
-Pure monotheism, simple repentance.
-YHVH is LORD
-The real Jesus is not God, the real YHVH is not a monster.
-Eternal life is a gift from the Living God.
-Keep the Commandments, keep your salvation.
-I have accepted YHVH as my Heavenly Father, LORD and Savior.

I am inspired by Jesus to worship none but YHVH, and to serve only Him.

brianbbs67
Guru
Posts: 1871
Joined: Thu Sep 21, 2017 12:07 am
Has thanked: 1 time
Been thanked: 1 time

Post #31

Post by brianbbs67 »

Imprecise Interrupt wrote:
JehovahsWitness wrote:
Imprecise Interrupt wrote: ... in John 2:19 which means arousing, as from sleep or death.

The word has a much wider range than you seem to be suggesting; may I suggest a good concordance?
https://studybible.info/strongs/G1453
The link you provided gives these definitions:

LSJ: to awaken, wake up, rouse

Dodson:
I wake, arouse, raise up
(a) I wake, arouse, (b) I raise up.

Strong's:
to waken (transitively or intransitively), i.e. rouse (literally, from sleep, from sitting or lying, from disease, from death; or figuratively, from obscurity, inactivity, ruins, nonexistence)

I do not see ‘stand up’ in there anywhere. But I see lots and lots of ‘waken’ and ‘rouse’. And I still see that the verb Jesus uses is active voice, first person singular.

John often conflates Jesus and God (the Father) yet does not exactly identify them. It is a confusing and shifting mixture. “I and the Father are one.� (Jn 10:29) “The Father is greater than I.� (Jn 14:28) The key is in John’s use of the language and concepts of Philo of Alexandria where this all makes sense. But that is way beyond the scope of this Topic, even though it is related to the development of the Trinity idea, mentioned in the OP.

Interesting, I and my wife are one. We are not the same.

BUt, I must admit, I would like you to expound upon Philo.

User avatar
Imprecise Interrupt
Apprentice
Posts: 187
Joined: Fri May 31, 2019 8:33 am

Post #32

Post by Imprecise Interrupt »

brianbbs67 wrote:

BUt, I must admit, I would like you to expound upon Philo.
viewtopic.php?p=966104#966104

Post Reply