The issue raised was the validity or otherwise of combining verses 28 and 29 of Matthew 16 as being a text in its proper context, or not.
Here now, without further ado, is the exchange.
Elijah John wrote
Checkpoint wroteNo interpretation, let's let the text speak for itself. What does this mean, in your opinion?
27 For the Son of Man is going to come in his Father’s glory with his angels, and then he will reward each person according to what they have done.28 “Truly I tell you, some who are standing here will not taste death before they see the Son of Man coming in his kingdom.
Elijah John wroteHere we go again, E.J.
Who chose what you now quote as being "the text"?
It is not a text but rather a portion of two texts joined together to make what is an artificial text.
It is the end of one text and the beginning of another text.
Both are therefore out of their own context.
"A text taken out of its context becomes a pretext for a prooftext".
In my Bible verses 27 and 28 are in the same paragraph. Same paragraph, same subject. The way I read it Jesus was speaking of his 2nd coming in verse 27. How do you read it?
And in 28 he was referring to his contemporary listener, "some standing here".
Jesus still has not returned in judgement with his Father's angels. Are his contemporaries still alive?
Having said this, I see what you mean. I did a little research and yes, some versions have v 27 +28 in different paragraphs. Others, including the ASV, RSV, NRSV, NJB, have the two verses in the same paragraph.
But that would indeed make a world of difference. Was Jesus shifting topics here? Almost like stream of consciousness? Or not.