My Lord and my God - Shema Trinity

[Wootah]

Thomas says, "My Lord and my God."

https://biblehub.com/text/john/20-28.htm

What did he mean to claim about Jesus?

[tigger2]

[Replying to post 156 by Overcomer]

tigger2 wrote:

“Robertson points out that this is ‘a sort of interjectional nominative,’ something of an emotional outburst."

O: I'm not sure where you got that either.

T2: If you would actually read what is written, you would easily see that this is a quote of a statement by Daniel B. Wallace and his source for it is given in his footnote.

[tigger2]

[Replying to post 156 by Overcomer]

tigger2 wrote:

So, to understand what may have really been intended by Thomas, let’s first examine it as if the words were not directly applied to Jesus. Notice the parallel between 1 Samuel 20:12 (where Jonathan’s words appear to be directed to David: “... Jonathan saith unto David, ‘Jehovah, God of Israel - when I search my father, about this time tomorrow ....’� - Young’s Literal Translation, cf. KJV) and John 20:28 (where Thomas’ words appear to be directed to Jesus: “Thomas answered him, ‘My Lord and my God!’�).

The significant point here is that, although the scripture shows Jonathan speaking to David, it apparently literally calls him (David) “O LORD God of Israel�!! (For a straightforward literal translation see 1 Samuel 20:12 in the King James Version.)

O: Here is how that verse reads in the NIV: ....

T2: I am simply going by the literal text of the Hebrew OT. Take a look at it.

It reads as I have said. The additions by most Bibles have been added in accordance with their idea of what was intended. Naturally, a trinitarian Bible would not add what was probably intended at John 20:28 as they would in 1 Samuel (for obvious reasons).

[tigger2]

[Replying to post 156 by Overcomer]

You have a tendency to quote the King James Version, but here's the thing: There have been so many more ancient texts discovered since the time that it was written. That means newer translations, using those new discoveries, are more accurate translations. The NIV, NASB, NRSV, ESV, etc. are all superior. If you are going to make arguments using the Bibles that Christians use, then use them, not the antiquated KJV.

I agree that it has many errors, but it appears most trinitarians like to use it, so I use it to reach them. It is better to compare any translation with the OT and NT texts. https://studybible.info/search/IHOT/1%20samuel%2020:12

[brianbbs67]

That is a 2000 year old fallacy and fraud on all believers.

Nope. Some think it is, for sure, but that does not make it so.

Look up the word sabbath, week, first, one and seven in Koine.

Oh, I have. I just did, for your sake.

Just because someone says its true, doesn't mean it is. Test it all. Hold fast to what is true.

Right on.

Don't you realize your religion is of Hebrew origin?

I realize a whole lot of things, Brian, thank the Lord. And that's one of them.

Grace and peace to you.

I had forgotten this discussion. Yes, Mia Ton Sabbaton can mean either 1(sunday) of the Seven or one of the Sabbaths. Just like malach/malak can mean divine or human messenger. Context is everything with these words. What about Hebrews 4:9 where many bibles delete Sabbath? Seems like subterfuge to me.

https://biblehub.com/hebrews/4-9.htm

[Checkpoint]

[Replying to post 161 by brianbbs67]

What about Hebrews 4:9 where many bibles delete Sabbath? Seems like subterfuge to me.

I just now checked.

Not so. Most translations include "sabbath".