Why didn't Jesus mention "the blood"

[Elijah John]

Why did Jesus so often teach forgiveness without mentioning "the blood", or without tying it to "the blood"?

Examples,

-The LORD's prayer
-The Beattitudes
-The Parables.

If forgiveness is tied to "the blood" (as the author of Hebrews claims) why didn't Jesus go around preaching this, and instead preach simple repentance and the Father's mercy? Without tying that forgiveness to "the blood"?

[Elijah John]

[Replying to post 14 by Elijah John]

Yes, EJ, Tcg said that Jesus may not have even wanted to die but just kind of fell into it. He minimized Jesus' purpose, obedience, and suffering.

How does that minimize Jesus suffering? Are you saying martyrs do not suffer?

Also, Jesus martyrdom being somewhat unexpected seems a reasonable explanation of why he shifted emphasis towards the end, (if indeed he did this) from the Father's mercy to the blood-atoning merits of his own impending death.

I am saying that Jesus suffered the most of any martyr. He set out from the beginning(Matthew 3:11,12; John 1:29) to prepare people and himself for the most important event in the history of mankind (according to the Bible). He knew what he had to do, and he didn't just "find himself" in that predicament as some suggest. He was taking the place of every single human that was ever born, if they would accept that fact, so that they would not ever have to be annihilated. He also had to put up with being called a blasphemer and a criminal and a seditionist. The most hurtful was that he was being accused of speaking and acting against his Father, God, and that was what caused him to sweat blood when praying in the garden before his last hours. He knew he had to die that awful death and resisted any tendency to give in and try to save himself. He was faithful to the end, and because of what he did we can be assured of the prospect of never having to have our everlasting lives terminated.

Not to minimize the suffering Jesus endured with his martyrdom, but if this was the "most important event in the history of mankind" that death of the Messiah was for the purpose of atonement, it seems neither Jesus nor the authors of the Hebrew Bible prepared people for the notion that forgiveness is tied to "the blood" of the Messiah.

Yes, he seems to have alluded to this at the Last Supper, but how do you account for the fact that he preached repentance many times, and in many important places (the LORD's prayer, the Beattitudes and the Parables" without tying forgiveness to "the blood"?

So far, we have not gotten a good answer to this question, from anyone that I can recall.

To cite the very few places where he mentions the "blood of the covenant" does not counter the many instances where he preached forgiveness without mentioning this, or simply preached forgiveness based on repentance and the merciful nature of Father Jehovah.

[Eloi]

[Replying to Elijah John]
In this passage you can see both aspects together:

Heb. 10:26 For if we practice sin willfully after having received the accurate knowledge of the truth, there is no longer any sacrifice for sins left, 27 but [there is] a certain fearful expectation of judgment and [there is] a fiery jealousy that is going to consume those in opposition. 28 Any man that has disregarded the law of Moses dies without compassion, upon the testimony of two or three. 29 Of how much more severe a punishment, do YOU think, will the man be counted worthy who has trampled upon the Son of God and who has esteemed as of ordinary value the blood of the covenant by which he was sanctified, and who has outraged the spirit of undeserved kindness with contempt? 30 For we know him that said: “Vengeance is mine; I will recompense�; and again: “Jehovah will judge his people.� 31 It is a fearful thing to fall into the hands of [the] living God.

[brianbbs67]

[Replying to Elijah John]
In this passage you can see both aspects together:

Heb. 10:26 For if we practice sin willfully after having received the accurate knowledge of the truth, there is no longer any sacrifice for sins left, 27 but [there is] a certain fearful expectation of judgment and [there is] a fiery jealousy that is going to consume those in opposition. 28 Any man that has disregarded the law of Moses dies without compassion, upon the testimony of two or three. 29 Of how much more severe a punishment, do YOU think, will the man be counted worthy who has trampled upon the Son of God and who has esteemed as of ordinary value the blood of the covenant by which he was sanctified, and who has outraged the spirit of undeserved kindness with contempt? 30 For we know him that said: “Vengeance is mine; I will recompense�; and again: “Jehovah will judge his people.� 31 It is a fearful thing to fall into the hands of [the] living God.

Verse 28 has a strange translation in most bibles. The Greek says unless the witnesses have mercy, he dies. This is because 2-3 witness' are required to convict under Moses' law. It is interesting that most christians read over this passage without realizing what it says. "the knowledge of the truth" is a direct Torah reference to the law. The law of Moses is called truth, many many times.

So, the verse could be rendered as "once you know the law as shown by christ, there is no covering for intentional sin. Just an expectation of judgement, unless 2 or 3 witnesses have mercy, he dies."

https://biblehub.com/interlinear/hebrews/10-28.htm