Do God's Morals Change?

[POI]

The Bible states:

"A priest’s daughter who loses her honor by committing fornication and thereby dishonors her father also, shall be burned to death."

Is this law still binding for anyone today? If so, are such laws ever being carried out?

Or, is it no longer binding for anyone? And if not, why is it no longer binding? And furthermore, if it is no longer binding for anyone, who's to say God's law will not change again someday?

[bjs1]

If your focus is on the legal punishment then you are not really engaging with Christianity at all.

Yes I am. You don't get the NT without the OT. I know it is quite inconvenient for Christians, but they are forced to leave the OT in the entire equation (i.e.) as a later deemed NT writer wrote (i.e.)

Of course I keep the OT, and it is in no way an inconvenience. It tells how the eternal truth of an unchanging God was expressed in a specific time, place and culture.

In the context of Christianity it is the underlying command, not the legal punishment, that has eternal value. You can of course say that Christians ought to be more focused on the legal punishment. However, creating a religious view that Christians don’t hold and then attacking that is the definition of a strawman argument.

"For truly I tell you, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished. 19 Therefore anyone who sets aside one of the least of these commands and teaches others accordingly will be called least in the kingdom of heaven, but whoever practices and teaches these commands will be called great in the kingdom of heaven."

I am all for quoting the Bible, but I hope that it comes as no surprise that I now ask you to put that passage in context. You have quoted form the Sermon on the Mount. So in the context of the Sermon on the Mount what does Jesus say that the Law is and what set of commands is he referring to?

You will have to speak with an orthodox Jew on that topic. I am not qualified to speak for them.

I do not have to speak to Orthodox Jews. If you are a Christian, I can ask you directly.

You have asked me directly, and I have told you that for Christians the underlying moral code of sexual morality, not the legal penalty, is what matters. I suppose what I should have said is, “If you want a different answer you will have to ask someone else.”

Further, you seemed to ignore my bottom question. Allow me to repeat:

Was the punishment commanded by the consensus of humans, or, god himself?

This is too simplistic. The command was inspired by God and placed into a specific human culture. The underlying ethic is unchanging. The legal punishment was inspired by God to fit that specific theocratic cultural context.

[POI]

Of course I keep the OT, and it is in no way an inconvenience. It tells how the eternal truth of an unchanging God was expressed in a specific time, place and culture.

In what specific context (specific time, place, and culture) is the appropriate punishment to burn the fornicating daughter of a priest? I argue there isn't one, ever.... But I do look forward to your rationale here....

I am all for quoting the Bible, but I hope that it comes as no surprise that I now ask you to put that passage in context. You have quoted form the Sermon on the Mount. So in the context of the Sermon on the Mount what does Jesus say that the Law is and what set of commands is he referring to?

You would have a case if he did not say what he said. The law referred to the OT as well, via the law of the prophets. And one of the prophets commanded that fornicating priest's daughter are to be burned.

This is too simplistic. The command was inspired by God and placed into a specific human culture. The underlying ethic is unchanging. The legal punishment was inspired by God to fit that specific theocratic cultural context.

So it was given by God and the human was the mere ghost writer. This means the punishment, (to burn fornicating priest's daughters), was issued by god, and not the human.

Why did this command/law change?

[bjs1]

You would have a case if he did not say what he said. The law referred to the OT as well, via the law of the prophets.

Really? Because in the Sermon on the Mount Jesus explicitly stated what the Law and the Prophets were, and he did not point to the Torah.

Why did this command/law change?

I have answered this question seven times now in this thread. It would be optimistic to the point of naivety to think that an eighth time will be of any use.

[POI]

Because in the Sermon on the Mount Jesus explicitly stated what the Law and the Prophets were, and he did not point to the Torah.

The verse I highlighted states that none of it is to be ignored. And BTW, the first five books possess the ten commandments, etc... And wouldn't you know it.... Matthew 5 mentions "murder" and "adultery," just like in the Torah

I have answered this question seven times now in this thread. It would be optimistic to the point of naivety to think that an eighth time will be of any use.

Oh, this is because I wanted to continue giving you the chance to answer, as to what is most likely the actual reason. It doesn't appear that you are going to, so allow me... No Orthodox Jew needed....

This command, to "burn daughters", was made by humans alone. Just like all the others, which were passed off as "god pronouncements". We've learned that these types of commands are overkill, and have moved away from such bronze-aged thinking. Same as many other commands, for which we no longer adhere to... Many commands seem nonsensical. Thus, you and I ignore them, for logical reasons. There, that wasn't too hard now, was it?