Why is Jesus called the Word, the Logos of God?

[MissKate13]

Why is Jesus called the Word (Logos) of God?

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (John 1:1)

And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth. (John 1:14)

He was clothed with a robe dipped in blood, and His name is called The Word of God. (Rev. 19:13)

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The short answer to the OP question would be because Jesus was the embodiment of God’s message to us.

If I speak a word, that word is a part of me, is it not? If I respond to a post from you, you associate that post with me. They are my words. You cannot separate me from my words. They are an “exact representation” of me. Yes, you are reading them from a phone or computer screen, but those words belong to me. I am in control of them and responsible for them.

It is no different than the relationship between God the Father, and His Son, Jesus, the Word. The words Jesus spoke were from the Father (John 12:49). Jesus was the embodiment of the words spoken by the Father, the Father’s words in the physical body of Jesus.

Just as I cannot separate my words from me, Jesus, the Word of God, could not be separated from the Father. Just as I can send my words out in a forum post, the Father sent His words out in the body of Jesus.

This is why Jesus would say “I and the Father are one” John 10:30). It is why he could say “…You, the Father, are in Me, and I am in You” (John 17:21). It is why Jesus would say, “…Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father…” (John 14:9). And why He would say, “For I have come down from heaven, not to do My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me” (John 6:38)

This is why I believe the Father is YHWH, the Son is YHWH, and the Holy Spirit is YHWH. Each has a role. The Father is greater in position. He controls both the Son and the Spirit, who is the power behind the words of the Father.

Why did Jesus pray to the Father? Why did he submit to the Father’s will? The answer is simple. The Father was in control of His Word, just as we are in control of our words.

The Father, His Word (the logos) and His Spirit have always existed as the ONE and only true YHWH! They cannot be separated!

[JehovahsWitness]

And why He would say, “For I have come down from heaven, not to do My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me” (John 6:38)


IS IT POSSIBLE JESUS MEANT BY THIS THAT HE WAS THE SAME PERSON AS THE ONE THAT SENT HIM?

Obviously not. Jesus here actually explained that he was sent by someone that had a different will (desire). So Jesus was sent to earth by a different individual than himself.

[JehovahsWitness]

...Why did he submit to the Father’s will? The answer is simple. The Father was in control of His Word, just as we are in control of our words.

No, I strongly disagree. Jesus obeys his father out of LOVE. He could have disobeyed GOD but he did not want to because he loves the Father and would never want to do anything to hurt or displease Him.

Jesus is not like a robot under the control of a his master, only capable of doing what he is programed to do. (Nor is he like the words on a computer screen that have no choice but to appear as typed). Like all Gods intelligent creation, Jesus enjoys the gift of FREE WILL. Which means he has the ability to make independent decisions

.



Jesus always submits to His Father's will out of love and respect for that One. Even when, as was the case in Gethsemane, doing so means agreeing to something he personally would prefer to avoid.




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[Ross]

Why is Jesus called the Word (Logos) of God?
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (John 1:1)
The Father, His Word (the logos) and His Spirit have always existed as the ONE and only true YHWH! They cannot be separated!

Hi MissKate,

The prologue of John is my favourite part of the Bible.
It begins with the Koine' Greek expression " EN ARCHE'' translated as "In the beginning"
"EN ARCHE" is the term used in the LXX at Genesis 1:1 where it says:
"In the beginning God created," and so I believe in John 1:1 it both references, is linked without question to, and is an explanation of the creation in Genesis, the beginning of the Masoretic Text.

In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth.
And the earth was without form, and void; and darkness was upon the face of the deep. And the Spirit of God moved upon the face of the waters.
And God said, Let there be light: and there was light.

To me, The Logos is identified by the term "God said" (The Word.)
The Spirit is clearly there too, and The Father, or possibly YHWH in the complete Godhead is presented in the first line.

[MissKate13]

[Replying to JehovahsWitness in post #10]

Do your words belong to you, JW? When you speak them, are they a part of you? Is there ever a time when your words can not be a representation of you?

Jesus is the Word of God (the Logos). The Word of God became flesh. How can yo separate the Word of God from God who spoke His word into existence?

[MissKate13]

[Replying to Ross in post #14]

Thank you so much, Ross, for your encouraging post, and thanks for actually reading what I wrote.

The Jehovah’s Witnesses who responded didn’t actually address the main idea of my OP, which is written in bold below.

Just as I cannot be separated from my words, Jehovah cannot be separated from His word. They are ONE!

God didn’t create Jesus any more that He created the words He spoke. Jesus was the embodiment of those words, therefore, Jesus is God.

[MissKate13]

To me, The Logos is identified by the term "God said" (The Word.)
The Spirit is clearly there too, and The Father, or possibly YHWH in the complete Godhead is presented in the first line.

Hi Ross,
I couldn’t agree more! “The Logos is identified by the term “God said” (The Word).

We see this in Psalm 33:6
“By the word of the Lord the heavens were made,
And all the host of them by the breath of His mouth.”

How can the “word of the Lord, the Logos, be separate and apart from the Lord who spoke them?

This is how we can say with all certainty that the Word was God, and not a god.

[Ross]

To me, The Logos is identified by the term "God said" (The Word.)
The Spirit is clearly there too, and The Father, or possibly YHWH in the complete Godhead is presented in the first line.

Hi Ross,
I couldn’t agree more! “The Logos is identified by the term “God said” (The Word).

We see this in Psalm 33:6
“By the word of the Lord the heavens were made,
And all the host of them by the breath of His mouth.”

How can the “word of the Lord, the Logos, be separate and apart from the Lord who spoke them?

This is how we can say with all certainty that the Word was God, and not a god.

Like you MissKate, I don't much like the term 'three persons' in one God, nor do I like the word 'Trinity' much too, as they are words of men attempting to rationalize the being and glory of God as he is partially presented or revealed to us. But there can be no doubt whatsoever to me anyway that:

"And God said "let us..." is The Word of God as described in John 1:1, the pre-existent Christ, identified clearly as God here.

And that:

"And the Word was with God" means that God The Word was with The Father.

And that if ever one wants evidence of a Trinity, here it is:

"And The Spirit of God was hovering above the surface of the waters"

All in John 1:1 and the first three verses of Genesis which it explains.

[Ross]

The Jehovah’s Witnesses who responded didn’t actually address the main idea of my OP, which is written in bold below.

I have explained in previous threads how Jehovah's Witnesses use 'landsliding' or 'landfill' attempts and techniques to dominate any reasonable debate.
They throw in so much material in front of a subject or question so as to attempt to smother it, often going off track and changing the subject or diluting it as though quantity substitutes quality.

If ever someone has had a Bible discussion with one, the Witness will seize control of the verbal rhetoric, and not stop to allow for a one to one decent and polite exchange. It is the same here.

[JehovahsWitness]

IN WHAT WAY ARE JESUS AND HIS FATHER INSEPERABLE?

Jesus and his father are inseperable in they remain entirely united in thought and purpose. They are never in disagreement as to what is the right thing to do.


Can the person of Jesus literally be separated from God, as in, can he be in a different location to his Father?

Evidently yes since when on earth Jesus said "l am going my way to the Father " Obviously Jesus was indicating that at the moment of speaking he was not literally with his Father. They were in different locations : Jesus was on the planet earth while YHWH was in heaven. If they were both literally in the same location he would not have said he was going to his Father.


DOES THE FACT THAT JESUS REPRESENTS GOD MAKE YHHW AND JESUS DIFFERENT NAMES FOR THE SAME PERSON?

While it is fair to say just as our words represent the thoughts in our minds, that Jesus REPRESENTED Jehovah (YWHH), communicating Jehovahs thoughts and feelings to other. This does not mean that Jesus could not be a seperate individual. Jesus is not literally Gods thoughts and words, he is a powerful spirit son of God.