I AM HE or I AM?

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MissKate13
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I AM HE or I AM?

Post #1

Post by MissKate13 »

Ego Eimi = I AM
There is no HE. It simply means.I AM.

There are several instances in John where Jesus applies to Himself the same expression that God used at the burning bush: “I AM.” (Exodus 3:14)

(John 8:24). The word “He” is in italics indicating the translators’ insertion. However, in keeping with the theme of John, as well as the immediate context, its insertion is unwarranted and obscures the power of Jesus’ statement. He was, in fact, forthrightly declaring His deity to the hard-hearted Jews by identifying Himself with the same Deity that Moses encountered at the burning bush.

This fact is evident in the context. Three verses later, in John 8:28, Jesus again states I AM. Translators place the “He” in italics.

For a third time, in John 8:58 , Jesus pointedly presses the fact to bring closure to His confrontation: Jesus said to the unbelieving Jews, “Most assuredly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM.”

The Jews correctly understood that Jesus was making a direct claim to Deity, evidenced by the fact that they prepared to execute Him for the capital crime of blasphemy.

In John 4:19, Jesus stresses the same point to the Samaritan woman. The translators again add “He” following “I AM” Jesus was connecting Himself the the “I AM” of the burning bush.

The apostles were gripped by fear for their lives, seeing Jesus walking on the water toward their boat. “But He said to them, ‘It is I; do not be afraid’” (John 6:20). The English reader would likely never know that the words “It is I” are a translation of the Greek ego eimi, “I am.” Undoubtedly, Jesus was again calling attention to His divinity—as indicated by “I AM. Be not afraid.

”On the occasion when Jesus washed the feet of His disciples in John 13:19, He said to them, “Now I tell you before it comes, that when it does come to pass, you may believe that I am He” (John 13:19). The word He was added. Once again, Jesus was deliberately spotlighting His divinity to His disciples by identifying Himself with the burning bush episode. He intended to emphasize to them that they would realize that He is the great “I AM.”

My personal favorite is John 18:4-5. When the mob came to arrest Jesus, He asks, “Whom are you seeking?’ They answered Him, ‘Jesus of Nazareth.’ Jesus said to them, ‘I am He’” (John 18:4-5). Once again, “He” is in italics.

Notice the reaction. They drew back and fell to the ground. Remember, that these soldiers were not Romans. They were Jewish soldiers sent by the chief priests and Pharisees. They were well aware of the import of the expression “I AM.”

Jesus enlisted the use of “I am” in seven additional instances when He offered descriptions of His divine nature, each prefaced by EGO EIM.
1. “I am the Bread of Life” (6:35).
2. “I am the Light of the world” (8:12).
3. “I am the Door” (10:9).
4. “I am the Good Shepherd” (10:4).
5. “I am the Resurrection and the Life” (11:25).
6. “I am the Way, the Truth, and the Life” (14:6).
7. “I am the Vine” (15:5).
In each of these cases, a feature of Jesus’ Person is spotlighted that can only describe deity. No mere human being can rightfully be said to be the Bread of Life, the Light of the world, etc. These glorious affirmations pertain solely to Christ in His divine state.

Insering the word “He” was not only unnecessary, its insertion obscures and softens the force of Jesus’ claim explicitly linking Himself directly to the statement spoken by God to Moses at the burning bush. Indeed, the very heart and core of Christianity is Christ as the divine Son of God. One cannot even be a Christian unless that divinity is orally confessed prior to conversion (Romans 10:9-10).

Unless you believe Jesus when He says EGO EIMI, translated I AM, you will die in your sins.
”For unless you believe that I am, you will die in your sins.” (John 8:24

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Re: I AM HE or I AM?

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Post by 1213 »

MissKate13 wrote: Sat Sep 02, 2023 3:30 pm Ego Eimi = I AM
There is no HE. It simply means.I AM.

There are several instances in John where Jesus applies to Himself the same expression that God used at the burning bush: “I AM.” (Exodus 3:14)...
Also Paul uses word ego eimi about himself, does it mean he is claiming to be the God?

This is a faithful saying, and worthy of all acceptation, that Christ Jesus came into the world to save sinners; of whom I am (= ego eimi) chief
1. Tim. 1:15

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Re: I AM HE or I AM?

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Post by Eddie Ramos »

1213 wrote: Sun Sep 03, 2023 9:53 am
MissKate13 wrote: Sat Sep 02, 2023 3:30 pm Ego Eimi = I AM
There is no HE. It simply means.I AM.

There are several instances in John where Jesus applies to Himself the same expression that God used at the burning bush: “I AM.” (Exodus 3:14)...
Also Paul uses word ego eimi about himself, does it mean he is claiming to be the God?

This is a faithful saying, and worthy of all acceptation, that Christ Jesus came into the world to save sinners; of whom I am (= ego eimi) chief
1. Tim. 1:15
If one looks very closely, the Greek Phrase (transliterated as) "Ego Eimi" (in that particular order and without words inserted in between) is never used to speak of anyone other than Christ/God. The example proposed in 1 Timothy 1:15 is written in the Greek as "Eimi Ego" not as "Ego Eimi".

"....of whom first am I".

The fact that this order was rearranged during translation bears no weight, as this was done to merely make the sentence flow better in English.

Here is another example of where the translators rearranged the words from the original text. And although this time the words "Ego Eimi" are in the correct order, they are not side by side like they are every time it's used exclusively of Christ/God.

Matthew 8:9 (KJV 1900)
For I am (Ego Eimi) a man under authority, having soldiers under me: and I say to this man, Go, and he goeth; and to another, Come, and he cometh; and to my servant, Do this, and he doeth it.


But the correct order of the Greek words are, "For I (Ego) a man (anthropos) am (Eimi).
If one looks in study helps like the Blue Letter Bible, this site will actually confuse the student more because when it provides the Strong's numbers for each word, it does so while keeping the English translation the same, so passages like Matthew 8:9 will seem like "Ego Eimi" are right next to one another, the same way they are when referring to Christ/God. But when we look at an actual interlinear, we se that such is not the case with Matthew 8:9, 1 Timothy 1:15, or any other passage that is speaking of common man.

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Re: I AM HE or I AM?

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Post by 1213 »

Eddie Ramos wrote: Sun Sep 03, 2023 2:12 pm "....of whom first am I".
The fact that this order was rearranged during translation bears no weight, as this was done to merely make the sentence flow better in English.
That is interesting point. I still think it is wrong to think that using words "I am" means one is claiming to be God, because in the context it would not be reasonable.

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Re: I AM HE or I AM?

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Post by MissKate13 »

[Replying to Eddie Ramos in post #3]

Good response Eddie. Thank you!
”For unless you believe that I am, you will die in your sins.” (John 8:24

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Re: I AM HE or I AM?

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Post by MissKate13 »

[Replying to 1213 in post #2]

What Eddie said.
”For unless you believe that I am, you will die in your sins.” (John 8:24

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Re: I AM HE or I AM?

Post #7

Post by 1213 »

MissKate13 wrote: Tue Sep 05, 2023 6:43 am [Replying to 1213 in post #2]

What Eddie said.
Maybe we should rather think, what Jesus said. He said there is only one true God that is greater than him. Should I rather believe Eddie or Jesus?

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Re: I AM HE or I AM?

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Post by MissKate13 »

Interesting! You have no actual response to my post. You cannot refute the many times Jesus refers to Himself as I AM.
”For unless you believe that I am, you will die in your sins.” (John 8:24

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Re: I AM HE or I AM?

Post #9

Post by MissKate13 »

[Replying to 1213 in post #4]

Jesus used the title “I AM,” the name God used for Himself in Exodus 3:14. The reaction of the Pharisees confirms this is precisely what Jesus was claiming because they tried to stone Him for blasphemy. John tells us directly that Jesus was making Himself equal with God in 5:18.

In Mark 2, Jesus heals the paralytic man and forgives his sins. The scribes who were there called this blasphemy because only God has authority to forgive sin (see Isaiah 43:25). This was a claim by Jesus to be God.
”For unless you believe that I am, you will die in your sins.” (John 8:24

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Re: I AM HE or I AM?

Post #10

Post by tam »

Peace to you,
Eddie Ramos wrote: Sun Sep 03, 2023 2:12 pm
1213 wrote: Sun Sep 03, 2023 9:53 am
MissKate13 wrote: Sat Sep 02, 2023 3:30 pm Ego Eimi = I AM
There is no HE. It simply means.I AM.

There are several instances in John where Jesus applies to Himself the same expression that God used at the burning bush: “I AM.” (Exodus 3:14)...
Also Paul uses word ego eimi about himself, does it mean he is claiming to be the God?

This is a faithful saying, and worthy of all acceptation, that Christ Jesus came into the world to save sinners; of whom I am (= ego eimi) chief
1. Tim. 1:15
If one looks very closely, the Greek Phrase (transliterated as) "Ego Eimi" (in that particular order and without words inserted in between) is never used to speak of anyone other than Christ/God. The example proposed in 1 Timothy 1:15 is written in the Greek as "Eimi Ego" not as "Ego Eimi".

"....of whom first am I".

The fact that this order was rearranged during translation bears no weight, as this was done to merely make the sentence flow better in English.

Here is another example of where the translators rearranged the words from the original text. And although this time the words "Ego Eimi" are in the correct order, they are not side by side like they are every time it's used exclusively of Christ/God.

Matthew 8:9 (KJV 1900)
For I am (Ego Eimi) a man under authority, having soldiers under me: and I say to this man, Go, and he goeth; and to another, Come, and he cometh; and to my servant, Do this, and he doeth it.


But the correct order of the Greek words are, "For I (Ego) a man (anthropos) am (Eimi).
If one looks in study helps like the Blue Letter Bible, this site will actually confuse the student more because when it provides the Strong's numbers for each word, it does so while keeping the English translation the same, so passages like Matthew 8:9 will seem like "Ego Eimi" are right next to one another, the same way they are when referring to Christ/God. But when we look at an actual interlinear, we se that such is not the case with Matthew 8:9, 1 Timothy 1:15, or any other passage that is speaking of common man.
Not that I think the above matters (languages do not translate word for word or in the same order in many instances), but what you have said above does not appear to be correct.

Acts 10:21 has ego eimi in that specific order in the greek, when speaking of Peter.

Then Peter went down to the men which were sent unto him from Cornelius; and said, Behold, I am he whom ye seek: what is the cause wherefore ye are come?



You can see the order in the following two interlinear links:

https://biblehub.com/interlinear/acts/10-21.htm
https://www.blueletterbible.org/tools/i ... act/10/21/




Peace again to you,
your servant and a slave of Christ,
tammy
- Non-religious Christian spirituality

- For Christ (who is the Spirit)

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