Was Jesus an angel?

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Was Jesus an angel?

Post #1

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Hebrews 2:5 It is not to angels that he has subjected the world to come, about which we are speaking. 6 But there is a place where someone has testified:

“What is mankind that you are mindful of them,
a son of man that you care for him?
7 You made them a little[a] lower than the angels;
you crowned them with glory and honor
8 and put everything under their feet.”[c]

In putting everything under them,[d] God left nothing that is not subject to them.[e] Yet at present we do not see everything subject to them.[f] 9 But we do see Jesus, who was made lower than the angels for a little while, now crowned with glory and honor because he suffered death, so that by the grace of God he might taste death for everyone.


How can Jesus be an angel if he was temporarily lower than the angels?

Wouldn't it say he was temporarily the lowest of the angels?
Proverbs 18:17 The one who states his case first seems right, until the other comes and examines him.

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Re: Was Jesus an angel?

Post #11

Post by Eddie Ramos »

Wootah wrote: Thu Oct 05, 2023 7:18 pm
Basically, Michael does not rebuke Satan and lets YHWH do it but Jesus in Matthew does rebuke Satan. This shows that Jesus is not Michael. It also shows that either Jesus is wrong to rebuke Satan because Jesus is not YHWH or Jesus is YHWH and so can rebuke Satan.

From the article
There is a further problem with the identification of Jesus with Michael. The Book of Jude says:

But when the archangel Michael contended with the Devil and disputed about the body of Moses, he did not dare to bring a condemnation of slander against him, but said, "The Lord rebuke you!" (Jude 9).

Michael is obviously not the Lord. He could not rebuke the Devil on his own, but rather called upon the Lord to rebuke him. Jesus has no such problem with the Devil - He personally rebuked him, since He is the Lord.

Then Jesus said to him, "Away with you, Satan! For it is written, 'You shall worship the LORD your God, and Him only you shall serve.' " Then the Devil left Him, and behold, angels came and began to minister to Him (Matthew 4:10,11).
The way the Bible was written doesn't always (actually seldom) follow our logic. You're pointing out a good example in how something is read, but you're interpreting it using your (and mine) manner of speaking, but neither of us can do that. These are God's words, and we have to follow God's own "rules of grammar" as laid out in the Bible. The example you brought up was that "Michael... did not dare to bring a condemnation of slander against him, but said, "The Lord rebuke you!" (Jude 9). So, for Michael to say, "The LORD rebuke you", in our book seems to mean that Michael couldn't rebuke the Devil. But before we rely on that conclusion, we have to search the scriptures and see if the rest of the Bible will support that idea or if it contradicts it. If it contradicts it, then it is us who are in error. I hope on this we agree. Let's see what we find:

Zechariah 3:2 (KJV 1900)
And the LORD said unto Satan,
The LORD rebuke thee, O Satan;
Even the LORD that hath chosen Jerusalem rebuke thee:
Is not this a brand plucked out of the fire?


Here we see JEHOVAH rebuking Satan twice in the third person. Well according to our logic, we only use the third person to refer to a another person besides the one speaking and the one being spoken to. This is just one example of where God does this. Therefore, when we see Michael rebuking satan by saying, "the Lord rebuke thee", we can't rule out (based on our understanding of English grammar) that it canot be Michael (who is the Lord Jesus Christ himself (JEHOVAH)) as the very individual rebuking Satan.

This forces us to use the rest of the scriptures to make understand exactly who Michael the archangel is, and it is certainly Christ (as I demonstrated in my previous post).

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Re: Was Jesus an angel?

Post #12

Post by Eddie Ramos »

onewithhim wrote: Fri Oct 06, 2023 12:50 pm
...... We don't know why Jesus would not dare to rebuke Satan over Moses' body. There could have been reasons that are not written. It is certainly not enough to prove that Jesus is not Michael.
I would like to address this portion of your reply because during the time of the end, God has opened up much understanding from the scriptures, just as he said he would. (Daniel 12:8-10). Here is the context of your reply:

Jude 8–10 (KJV 1900)
Likewise also these filthy dreamers defile the flesh, despise dominion, and speak evil of dignities. 9 Yet Michael the archangel, when contending with the devil he disputed about the body of Moses, durst not bring against him a railing accusation, but said, The Lord rebuke thee. 10 But these speak evil of those things which they know not: but what they know naturally, as brute beasts, in those things they corrupt themselves.


Here we read of those who speak evil of those things which they know not. It's within this context that God gives us the example of Satan disputing about the body of Moses. When we look in the Bible to see how God defines the word "contending" we realize that it has to do with "judging", with "determining" something and with "calling (something) into question". In the context of Jude 9, it's the body of Moses which was called into question. And the only time the law comes into the picture is when it has been broken (1 Tim 1:9). Here is an example of how the word "contend" is used:

Acts 11:1–3 (KJV 1900)
And the apostles and brethren that were in Judaea heard that the Gentiles had also received the word of God. 2 And when Peter was come up to Jerusalem, they that were of the circumcision (THE JEWS) contended with him, 3 Saying, Thou wentest in to men uncircumcised, and didst eat with them.


We can see that these Jews did not understand what was taking place with the Word of God going forth to the whole world. So, based on what they knew not, they contended (went to the law) with Peter regarding his breaking of it (or so they thought).
But in Jude, why, of all things that could be given as an example of "speaking evil of things which they know not" would God use the accusation of the devil regarding the body of Moses? Not because it was God who burried Moses' body. There was nothing unlawful there to contend about. But Moses' body was the only one who was saved, then died and was resurected to receive his spiritual body. Moses appeared in the mount of transfiguration along with Elijah who was taken to heaven, (typifying the rapture). Since Elijah did not die, his body was not in question (the same with Enoch). Yet acording to the Bible, Christ was supposed to be the first to raise from the dead in his glorified spiritual body. Yet the account of the mount of transfiguration took place long before the cross of 33 AD.

If you recall the account of the gospel, the bodies of the dead dsidn't rise till after Christ rose first.

Matthew 27:52–53 (KJV 1900)
And the graves were opened; and many bodies of the saints which slept arose, 53 And came out of the graves after his resurrection, and went into the holy city, and appeared unto many.


But Moses was the one and only whose body was risen to his glorified spiritual body at the time of the transfiguration. Incidentally, that is the time Christ was also transfigured along with Moses and Elijah. This is why there was contention between the devil and Christ. yet all we read that happened is that Christ rebuked the devil. But why is that? Well, the answer takes us back to Daniel 12:8-10, in that there were many truths that God had kept sealed up within His Word. Things that no one could understand (saved or unsaved) until the time of the end. This meant that no one (including Satan) understood that Christ already died and paid for sins before the world began, and not at the cross. This means that Christ was indeed the first to rise from the dead in his glorified spiritual body, which means that Moses' resurrection was well within the allowance of the scriptures to appear before the cross of 33 AD. So, because Satan did not understand this, he brought his accusation (as he frequently does) and spoke evil of those things which he knew not. But, because the scriptures were still sealed at the time, God simply rebuked him for his false accusation. I hope this helps.

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Re: Was Jesus an angel?

Post #13

Post by Wootah »

[Replying to Eddie Ramos in post #11]

Well Michael knows what he can and can't do at least. Otherwise he would be another fallen angel.
Proverbs 18:17 The one who states his case first seems right, until the other comes and examines him.

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Re: Was Jesus an angel?

Post #14

Post by onewithhim »

Eddie Ramos wrote: Sun Oct 08, 2023 6:26 pm
onewithhim wrote: Fri Oct 06, 2023 12:50 pm
...... We don't know why Jesus would not dare to rebuke Satan over Moses' body. There could have been reasons that are not written. It is certainly not enough to prove that Jesus is not Michael.
I would like to address this portion of your reply because during the time of the end, God has opened up much understanding from the scriptures, just as he said he would. (Daniel 12:8-10). Here is the context of your reply:

Jude 8–10 (KJV 1900)
Likewise also these filthy dreamers defile the flesh, despise dominion, and speak evil of dignities. 9 Yet Michael the archangel, when contending with the devil he disputed about the body of Moses, durst not bring against him a railing accusation, but said, The Lord rebuke thee. 10 But these speak evil of those things which they know not: but what they know naturally, as brute beasts, in those things they corrupt themselves.


Here we read of those who speak evil of those things which they know not. It's within this context that God gives us the example of Satan disputing about the body of Moses. When we look in the Bible to see how God defines the word "contending" we realize that it has to do with "judging", with "determining" something and with "calling (something) into question". In the context of Jude 9, it's the body of Moses which was called into question. And the only time the law comes into the picture is when it has been broken (1 Tim 1:9). Here is an example of how the word "contend" is used:

Acts 11:1–3 (KJV 1900)
And the apostles and brethren that were in Judaea heard that the Gentiles had also received the word of God. 2 And when Peter was come up to Jerusalem, they that were of the circumcision (THE JEWS) contended with him, 3 Saying, Thou wentest in to men uncircumcised, and didst eat with them.


We can see that these Jews did not understand what was taking place with the Word of God going forth to the whole world. So, based on what they knew not, they contended (went to the law) with Peter regarding his breaking of it (or so they thought).
But in Jude, why, of all things that could be given as an example of "speaking evil of things which they know not" would God use the accusation of the devil regarding the body of Moses? Not because it was God who burried Moses' body. There was nothing unlawful there to contend about. But Moses' body was the only one who was saved, then died and was resurected to receive his spiritual body. Moses appeared in the mount of transfiguration along with Elijah who was taken to heaven, (typifying the rapture). Since Elijah did not die, his body was not in question (the same with Enoch). Yet acording to the Bible, Christ was supposed to be the first to raise from the dead in his glorified spiritual body. Yet the account of the mount of transfiguration took place long before the cross of 33 AD.

If you recall the account of the gospel, the bodies of the dead dsidn't rise till after Christ rose first.

Matthew 27:52–53 (KJV 1900)
And the graves were opened; and many bodies of the saints which slept arose, 53 And came out of the graves after his resurrection, and went into the holy city, and appeared unto many.


But Moses was the one and only whose body was risen to his glorified spiritual body at the time of the transfiguration. Incidentally, that is the time Christ was also transfigured along with Moses and Elijah. This is why there was contention between the devil and Christ. yet all we read that happened is that Christ rebuked the devil. But why is that? Well, the answer takes us back to Daniel 12:8-10, in that there were many truths that God had kept sealed up within His Word. Things that no one could understand (saved or unsaved) until the time of the end. This meant that no one (including Satan) understood that Christ already died and paid for sins before the world began, and not at the cross. This means that Christ was indeed the first to rise from the dead in his glorified spiritual body, which means that Moses' resurrection was well within the allowance of the scriptures to appear before the cross of 33 AD. So, because Satan did not understand this, he brought his accusation (as he frequently does) and spoke evil of those things which he knew not. But, because the scriptures were still sealed at the time, God simply rebuked him for his false accusation. I hope this helps.
Moses was not raised to the spirit realm, ever. Jesus made it quite clear that no one had gone to the heavens before him.

"And no man hath ascended up to heaven..." (John 3:13a, KJV)

The transfiguration was a vision. (Matthew 17:9)

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Re: Was Jesus an angel?

Post #15

Post by tam »

Peace to you and to you all!
1213 wrote: Wed Sep 20, 2023 4:48 am
Wootah wrote: Tue Sep 19, 2023 6:04 pm
Hebrews 2:5 It is not to angels that he has subjected the world to come, about which we are speaking. 6 But there is a place where someone has testified:

“What is mankind that you are mindful of them,
a son of man that you care for him?
7 You made them a little[a] lower than the angels;
you crowned them with glory and honor
8 and put everything under their feet.”[c]

In putting everything under them,[d] God left nothing that is not subject to them.[e] Yet at present we do not see everything subject to them.[f] 9 But we do see Jesus, who was made lower than the angels for a little while, now crowned with glory and honor because he suffered death, so that by the grace of God he might taste death for everyone.
How can Jesus be an angel if he was temporarily lower than the angels?

Wouldn't it say he was temporarily the lowest of the angels?
I don't think Bible says Jesus is an angel. But, maybe this depends on also, what is an angel?
Agreed. Where angel means messenger (of God), Christ certainly fits that description. But where angel means a particular seraph/spirit being such as Gabriel or Michael, no.

Both Christ and Michael are spoken of in Revelation. Jude also speaks of both Christ and Michael without making them the same person. First Jude speaks about Christ, then in the same chapter (just a couple paragraphs later) Jude speaks about Michael not rebuking the devil. He switches names because Michael is a different person than Christ.


If Christ were God (YHWH), or Michael (or Gabriel), He could have said so. He did not.


According to the words of Christ Himself, He is the Son of God.


Matthew 17:5



Peace again to you and to you all,
your servant and a slave of Christ,
tammy
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Re: Was Jesus an angel?

Post #16

Post by onewithhim »

tam wrote: Mon Oct 09, 2023 12:22 pm Peace to you and to you all!
1213 wrote: Wed Sep 20, 2023 4:48 am
Wootah wrote: Tue Sep 19, 2023 6:04 pm
Hebrews 2:5 It is not to angels that he has subjected the world to come, about which we are speaking. 6 But there is a place where someone has testified:

“What is mankind that you are mindful of them,
a son of man that you care for him?
7 You made them a little[a] lower than the angels;
you crowned them with glory and honor
8 and put everything under their feet.”[c]

In putting everything under them,[d] God left nothing that is not subject to them.[e] Yet at present we do not see everything subject to them.[f] 9 But we do see Jesus, who was made lower than the angels for a little while, now crowned with glory and honor because he suffered death, so that by the grace of God he might taste death for everyone.
How can Jesus be an angel if he was temporarily lower than the angels?

Wouldn't it say he was temporarily the lowest of the angels?
I don't think Bible says Jesus is an angel. But, maybe this depends on also, what is an angel?
Agreed. Where angel means messenger (of God), Christ certainly fits that description. But where angel means a particular seraph/spirit being such as Gabriel or Michael, no.

Both Christ and Michael are spoken of in Revelation. Jude also speaks of both Christ and Michael without making them the same person. First Jude speaks about Christ, then in the same chapter (just a couple paragraphs later) Jude speaks about Michael not rebuking the devil. He switches names because Michael is a different person than Christ.


If Christ were God (YHWH), or Michael (or Gabriel), He could have said so. He did not.


According to the words of Christ Himself, He is the Son of God.


Matthew 17:5



Peace again to you and to you all,
your servant and a slave of Christ,
tammy
Then why is Michael not spoken of at all in Matthew chapter 24 where the Great Tribulation is mentioned as it is mentioned concerning Michael who arose in sync with the Great Tribulation at Daniel 12:1,2? Michael is associated with the GT and the resurrection of the dead at Daniel 12:1,2. Jesus mentioned only himself in association with the GT and the resurrection of the dead (John 5:28, John 6:40). Where is Michael? I'd like to know.

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Re: Was Jesus an angel?

Post #17

Post by tam »

Peace to you,
onewithhim wrote: Tue Oct 10, 2023 9:00 am
tam wrote: Mon Oct 09, 2023 12:22 pm Peace to you and to you all!
1213 wrote: Wed Sep 20, 2023 4:48 am
Wootah wrote: Tue Sep 19, 2023 6:04 pm
Hebrews 2:5 It is not to angels that he has subjected the world to come, about which we are speaking. 6 But there is a place where someone has testified:

“What is mankind that you are mindful of them,
a son of man that you care for him?
7 You made them a little[a] lower than the angels;
you crowned them with glory and honor
8 and put everything under their feet.”[c]

In putting everything under them,[d] God left nothing that is not subject to them.[e] Yet at present we do not see everything subject to them.[f] 9 But we do see Jesus, who was made lower than the angels for a little while, now crowned with glory and honor because he suffered death, so that by the grace of God he might taste death for everyone.
How can Jesus be an angel if he was temporarily lower than the angels?

Wouldn't it say he was temporarily the lowest of the angels?
I don't think Bible says Jesus is an angel. But, maybe this depends on also, what is an angel?
Agreed. Where angel means messenger (of God), Christ certainly fits that description. But where angel means a particular seraph/spirit being such as Gabriel or Michael, no.

Both Christ and Michael are spoken of in Revelation. Jude also speaks of both Christ and Michael without making them the same person. First Jude speaks about Christ, then in the same chapter (just a couple paragraphs later) Jude speaks about Michael not rebuking the devil. He switches names because Michael is a different person than Christ.


If Christ were God (YHWH), or Michael (or Gabriel), He could have said so. He did not.


According to the words of Christ Himself, He is the Son of God.


Matthew 17:5



Peace again to you and to you all,
your servant and a slave of Christ,
tammy
Then why is Michael not spoken of at all in Matthew chapter 24 where the Great Tribulation is mentioned as it is mentioned concerning Michael who arose in sync with the Great Tribulation at Daniel 12:1,2?


Michael is not mentioned by name in Matt 24 (neither are any other angels). But Christ does mention angels being present and Michael is one of His angels.


If Christ were Michael, why did Christ not teach us this?

If the apostles thought Christ and Michael were the same person, why did they never mention it? Why did Jude, in fact, speak of both Christ and Michael as individual people in his letter?

If Christ was Michael, why is He spoken of in Revelation as Himself (as Christ), by His own name (Jaheshua, though the text renders this "Jesus"), instead of being spoken of as Michael? Is there a single place where Michael is ever referred to as the Christ, or as the Lamb, or as the Son of God, or as the King of kings and Lord of lords? Is Christ ever referred to as an archangel?

Michael is associated with the GT and the resurrection of the dead at Daniel 12:1,2.
Michael will be there. But he is not the one who resurrects the dead. He is not the one who calls the dead out of their graves. Christ is the One who does that.
Jesus mentioned only himself in association with the GT and the resurrection of the dead (John 5:28, John 6:40). Where is Michael? I'd like to know.
He also mentioned angels. An archangel is an angel.


Peace again to you.
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- For Christ (who is the Spirit)

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Re: Was Jesus an angel?

Post #18

Post by Eddie Ramos »

onewithhim wrote: Mon Oct 09, 2023 10:44 am
Moses was not raised to the spirit realm, ever. Jesus made it quite clear that no one had gone to the heavens before him.

"And no man hath ascended up to heaven..." (John 3:13a, KJV)

The transfiguration was a vision. (Matthew 17:9)
Moses's body was raised and changed to his spiritual body indeed. This is the only reason the devil would be disputing about the body of Moses. And you are correct in that no one has ascended into heaven before Christ, that is because Christ ascended into heaven before the world began after he died and rose again. Christ's death was done as an obedience to glorify the name of the Father. But look at what we read here:


John 12:27–28 (KJV 1900)
Now is my soul troubled; and what shall I say? Father, save me from this hour: but for this cause came I unto this hour. 28 Father, glorify thy name. Then came there a voice from heaven, saying, I have both glorified it(past tense), and will glorify it again(present tense).


Christ's death on the cross wasa a demonstration of what Christ already accomplished before the world began. Where doo you think Christ came from?

John 3:13 (KJV 1900)
And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven.


Not only did Christ come down from heaven, but while on earth, he tells us that he is IN heaven. This speaks to his diety as God Almighty. This is why every true child of God who died after creation was in the prescence of God in their soul existence. The Bible tells us this in various places.

Job 1:6 (KJV 1900)
 Now there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the LORD, and Satan came also among them.


While most theologiand think these sons of God are angelic beings, the Bible simply will not allow that.

Hebrews 1:5 (KJV 1900)
For unto which of the angels said he at any time, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee? And again, I will be to him a Father, and he shall be to me a Son?


The answer is to no angelic beings because they were never begotten, but only created. A son of God must be begotten. And the true children of God were.

1 Peter 1:3 (KJV 1900)
Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, which according to his abundant mercy hath begotten us again unto a lively hope by the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead,


1 John 3:2 (KJV 1900)
Beloved, now are we the sons of God, and it doth not yet appear what we shall be: but we know that, when he shall appear, we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is.


So, for Moses and Elijah to appear in their glorified spiritual bodies with Christ as he transfigured himself before his disciples, did not violate any scriptures. Also, can you show me where the Bible teaches you that this was a vision?

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Re: Was Jesus an angel?

Post #19

Post by onewithhim »

Eddie Ramos wrote: Wed Oct 11, 2023 12:01 am
onewithhim wrote: Mon Oct 09, 2023 10:44 am
Moses was not raised to the spirit realm, ever. Jesus made it quite clear that no one had gone to the heavens before him.

"And no man hath ascended up to heaven..." (John 3:13a, KJV)

The transfiguration was a vision. (Matthew 17:9)
Moses's body was raised and changed to his spiritual body indeed. This is the only reason the devil would be disputing about the body of Moses. And you are correct in that no one has ascended into heaven before Christ, that is because Christ ascended into heaven before the world began after he died and rose again. Christ's death was done as an obedience to glorify the name of the Father. But look at what we read here:


John 12:27–28 (KJV 1900)
Now is my soul troubled; and what shall I say? Father, save me from this hour: but for this cause came I unto this hour. 28 Father, glorify thy name. Then came there a voice from heaven, saying, I have both glorified it(past tense), and will glorify it again(present tense).


Christ's death on the cross wasa a demonstration of what Christ already accomplished before the world began. Where doo you think Christ came from?

John 3:13 (KJV 1900)
And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven.


Not only did Christ come down from heaven, but while on earth, he tells us that he is IN heaven. This speaks to his diety as God Almighty. This is why every true child of God who died after creation was in the prescence of God in their soul existence. The Bible tells us this in various places.

Job 1:6 (KJV 1900)
 Now there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the LORD, and Satan came also among them.


While most theologiand think these sons of God are angelic beings, the Bible simply will not allow that.

Hebrews 1:5 (KJV 1900)
For unto which of the angels said he at any time, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee? And again, I will be to him a Father, and he shall be to me a Son?


The answer is to no angelic beings because they were never begotten, but only created. A son of God must be begotten. And the true children of God were.

1 Peter 1:3 (KJV 1900)
Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, which according to his abundant mercy hath begotten us again unto a lively hope by the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead,


1 John 3:2 (KJV 1900)
Beloved, now are we the sons of God, and it doth not yet appear what we shall be: but we know that, when he shall appear, we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is.


So, for Moses and Elijah to appear in their glorified spiritual bodies with Christ as he transfigured himself before his disciples, did not violate any scriptures. Also, can you show me where the Bible teaches you that this was a vision?
You contradict what Jesus said at John 3:13 that no man had or would ascend to heaven before he went back to heaven. Jesus called the Transfiguration a vision at Matthew 17:9: "And as they were descending the mountain, Jesus commanded them, saying: "Tell the vision to no one until the Son of man is raised up from the dead."

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Re: Was Jesus an angel?

Post #20

Post by onewithhim »

tam wrote: Tue Oct 10, 2023 1:58 pm Peace to you,
onewithhim wrote: Tue Oct 10, 2023 9:00 am
tam wrote: Mon Oct 09, 2023 12:22 pm Peace to you and to you all!
1213 wrote: Wed Sep 20, 2023 4:48 am
Wootah wrote: Tue Sep 19, 2023 6:04 pm
Hebrews 2:5 It is not to angels that he has subjected the world to come, about which we are speaking. 6 But there is a place where someone has testified:

“What is mankind that you are mindful of them,
a son of man that you care for him?
7 You made them a little[a] lower than the angels;
you crowned them with glory and honor
8 and put everything under their feet.”[c]

In putting everything under them,[d] God left nothing that is not subject to them.[e] Yet at present we do not see everything subject to them.[f] 9 But we do see Jesus, who was made lower than the angels for a little while, now crowned with glory and honor because he suffered death, so that by the grace of God he might taste death for everyone.
How can Jesus be an angel if he was temporarily lower than the angels?

Wouldn't it say he was temporarily the lowest of the angels?
I don't think Bible says Jesus is an angel. But, maybe this depends on also, what is an angel?
Agreed. Where angel means messenger (of God), Christ certainly fits that description. But where angel means a particular seraph/spirit being such as Gabriel or Michael, no.

Both Christ and Michael are spoken of in Revelation. Jude also speaks of both Christ and Michael without making them the same person. First Jude speaks about Christ, then in the same chapter (just a couple paragraphs later) Jude speaks about Michael not rebuking the devil. He switches names because Michael is a different person than Christ.


If Christ were God (YHWH), or Michael (or Gabriel), He could have said so. He did not.


According to the words of Christ Himself, He is the Son of God.


Matthew 17:5



Peace again to you and to you all,
your servant and a slave of Christ,
tammy
Then why is Michael not spoken of at all in Matthew chapter 24 where the Great Tribulation is mentioned as it is mentioned concerning Michael who arose in sync with the Great Tribulation at Daniel 12:1,2?


Michael is not mentioned by name in Matt 24 (neither are any other angels). But Christ does mention angels being present and Michael is one of His angels.


If Christ were Michael, why did Christ not teach us this?

If the apostles thought Christ and Michael were the same person, why did they never mention it? Why did Jude, in fact, speak of both Christ and Michael as individual people in his letter?

If Christ was Michael, why is He spoken of in Revelation as Himself (as Christ), by His own name (Jaheshua, though the text renders this "Jesus"), instead of being spoken of as Michael? Is there a single place where Michael is ever referred to as the Christ, or as the Lamb, or as the Son of God, or as the King of kings and Lord of lords? Is Christ ever referred to as an archangel?

Michael is associated with the GT and the resurrection of the dead at Daniel 12:1,2.
Michael will be there. But he is not the one who resurrects the dead. He is not the one who calls the dead out of their graves. Christ is the One who does that.
Jesus mentioned only himself in association with the GT and the resurrection of the dead (John 5:28, John 6:40). Where is Michael? I'd like to know.
He also mentioned angels. An archangel is an angel.


Peace again to you.
So you believe that Jesus did not have the privilege of ousting Satan and his minions from heaven? "And war broke out in heaven: Michael and his angels battled with the dragon...but it did not prevail...So down the great dragon was hurled..." (Revelation 12: 7-9) Why wouldn't Jesus himself have this privilege? It is he who will get rid of Satan for good after the thousand years are over. It is also said that Michael HAS angels that fight with him. In your estimation, who is he that he should have angels under his command? I would vote for Jesus to have those privileges. After all, it was he that died for us and who earned a name higher than any name given among men. (Phil.2:8-10; Acts 4:12)

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