Gods name

[kjw47]

Every bible scholar on earth knows 100% that God put his name --( YHVH(Jehovah) = the tetragramoton) in his bible in over 7000 spots because God wants it there. Thus wicked men by satans will removed Gods name to mislead and replaced it in OT( nearly 6800 spots) with GOD or LORD all capitols--quoted in NT over 200 spots where God willed his name.
Now in light of Jesus, who at the Lords prayer has clearly shown to all that his Fathers name( YHVH(Jehovah) is the #1 most important thing, followed by his Fathers kingdom and will. Thus to a true follower Gods name is #1 most important issue.
So then one must ask why is my religion using altered translations in support of satans will over Gods will on the matter of his name belonging in his bible? Would you say to mislead is the answer? Yes it is.
Here is a prime example of the misleading that it does
Joel 2:21-22--Whoever calls on the name of YHVH(Jehovah) will be saved---quoted 2 x in the NT at Acts 2:21-22--Romans 10:13--But since satan willed translations have LORD at Joel, Lord is at both spots of NT, and all who know Jesus is Lord will call on his name in error because they are being mislead. God is not called LORD in the OT by his will, his name belongs there. it is causing major confusion.
The New world translation corrected that matter, yet every religion using the altered translations condemned the NWT. Why because with that name back in it exposes all of those ones using the altered translations as false religion.
The sad fact is that they know Gods name belongs in all of those spots. So what are you going to do about being mislead?

[onewithhim]

...
Joel 2:21-22--Whoever calls on the name of YHVH(Jehovah) will be saved---quoted 2 x in the NT at Acts 2:21-22--Romans 10:13--But since satan willed translations have LORD at Joel, Lord is at both spots of NT, and all who know Jesus is Lord will call on his name in error because they are being mislead....

Maybe at least some of them knows that God gave His name to Jesus. So, if people calls the name of Jesus, they call also the name of God, because Jesus has God's name?

"Jesus" means "Salvation of Jehovah," so in that sense Jesus' name is linked to Jehovah, but Jehovah didn't give His name to Jesus. They are two individuals, and the confusion sets in when the person that "LORD" is referring to is overshadowed and not clear because many would call "LORD" Jesus. In fact, as has been brought out, "LORD" in all capital letters refers only to Jehovah. But if His name is not there, what are your average Bible readers going to think that "LORD" means? They are not taught by their ministers that the name of Jehovah is there, 7,000 times.

[onewithhim]

The New world translation corrected that matter, yet every religion using the altered translations condemned the NWT. Why because with that name back in it exposes all of those ones using the altered translations as false religion.

This, like much of your post is incorrect and inaccurate.

The condemning of the NWT from scholars, translators, and everyone reasonably familiar with Christian theology was for two reasons:

1/ For placing 'Jehovah' in the NT when not one Greek manuscript in existence can be found containing YHWH.

2/ For manipulating most NT verses that allude to the divinity of Jesus Christ.

Not really. Jesus quotes the OT many times and uses the name "Jehovah" because that name appears in the OT verses that he is quoting. Peter also quotes the OT where Jehovah's name appears, as in Joel, as has been brought out. So it should appear in the NT in those places. Yet it does not. That is some insincere translating.

There are no manipulated verses as to the divinity of Christ because there are no verses that allude to his being God. "God" in the NT always refers to the Father, and that can be seen especially by reading the letters of Paul. Even the first few verses. And places like I Corinthians 8:6.

[historia]

We dont speak Hebrew, thus Jehovah is the name translated from YHVH.

"Jehovah" is a transliteration, not a translation. It is also a kind of portmanteau, constructed in the Middle Ages when Christians -- who didn't understand the special Masoretic vowel markings for the Divine Name in Jewish Hebrew manuscripts -- mistakenly conflated the consonants of YHWH with the vowels of adonai.

"Yahweh" is the more accurate rendering, and is now widely used by Christian authors, contrary to your claim that they are somehow trying to "hide" the Divine Name.

Men can claim they made up Gods name-Jehovah but they are in error.

What I've written above regarding the etymology of the word "Jehovah" is a simple statement of the facts. The word "Jehovah" (or "Yehowah") emerged in the Middle Ages and comes from a simple misreading of the Mesoretic text.

Sources like this one point out that the vowel markings in the Mesoretic text that resulted in the rendering "Jehovah" (or "Yehowah") were not the proper vowels for actually pronouncing the Divine Name. And that scholars agree, based on the historical evidence, that "Yahweh" was most likely how the Divine Name was actually pronounced in the ancient world:

In the second half of the first millennium C.E., Jewish scholars introduced a system of points to represent the missing vowels in the consonantal Hebrew text. When it came to God's name, instead of inserting the proper vowel signs for it, they put other vowel signs to remind the reader that he should say adonai (meaning "Sovereign Lord") or elohim (meaning "God").

The Codex Leningrad ^{B 19⁠A}, of the 11th century C.E., vowel points the Tetragrammaton to read Yehwah, Yehwih, and Yehowah. Ginsburg's edition of the Masoretic text vowel points the divine name to read Yehowah. (Ge 3:14, ftn)

Hebrew scholars generally favor "Yahweh" as the most likely pronunciation. They point out that the abbreviated form of the name is Yah (Jah in the Latinized form), as at Psalm 89:8 and in the expression Ha·lelu-Yah (meaning "Praise Jah, you people!") (Ps 104:35; 150:1,6). Also, the forms Yehoh, Yoh, Yah, and Yahu, found in the Hebrew spelling of the names Jehoshaphat, Joshaphat, Shephatiah, and others, can all be derived from Yahweh. Greek transliterations of the name by early Christian writers point in a somewhat similar direction with spellings such as Iabe and Iaoue, which, as pronounced in Greek, resemble Yahweh.

Are the men who wrote this in error?

The OT is quoted in NT over 200 spots where the name is in the OT. It belongs in the NT at those spots.

Whether you think it "belongs" there or not is irrelevant. All of the historical evidence points to the fact that the authors of the New Testament, like their Jewish contemporaries, wrote kyrios ("Lord") in place of the Divine Name when quoting from the Old Testament.

Is Gods name in your bible over 7000 places=No-Why?

I'll answer your questions once you start answering mine.

I asked above: Which Greek lexicons are "done" from the Latin Vulgate? Where did Jerome say that the Divine Name "belonged in the NT before translating"?

[historia]

Jesus quotes the OT many times and uses the name "Jehovah" because that name appears in the OT verses that he is quoting.

There is no evidence to support this claim.

So it should appear in the NT in those places. Yet it does not. That is some insincere translating.

To say this is "insincere translating" is, frankly, absurd.

There is not a single Greek New Testament manuscript that includes the Divine Name. Ancient translations of the New Testament into Latin, Syriac, Coptic, Ethiopic, Armenian, and so on, serve as witnesses to what the Greek New Testament text said. None of those manuscripts contain the Divine Name either.

All of the historical evidence points to the fact that the authors of the New Testament, like their Jewish contemporaries, wrote kyrios ("Lord") in place of the Divine Name when quoting from the Old Testament.

So translators of the New Testament are fully justified in translating what the Greek text actually says, rather than what you think the New Testament authors "should" have written, based on nothing more than your theological preferences.

[Ross]

To say this is "insincere translating" is, frankly, absurd.

There is not a single Greek New Testament manuscript that includes the Divine Name. Ancient translations of the New Testament into Latin, Syriac, Coptic, Ethiopic, Armenian, and so on, serve as witnesses to what the Greek New Testament text said. None of those manuscripts contain the Divine Name either.

All of the historical evidence points to the fact that the authors of the New Testament, like their Jewish contemporaries, wrote kyrios ("Lord") in place of the Divine Name when quoting from the Old Testament.

So translators of the New Testament are fully justified in translating what the Greek text actually says, rather than what you think the New Testament authors "should" have written, based on nothing more than your theological preferences.

Very well explained.

I find it outrageous and almost unbelievable that anyone attempts to argue against such facts

[1213]

...but Jehovah didn't give His name to Jesus.

In that case, who do you think in this scripture gives his name to Jesus?

...I protected them by your name that you gave me. ...
John 17:12

[onewithhim]

We dont speak Hebrew, thus Jehovah is the name translated from YHVH.

"Jehovah" is a transliteration, not a translation. It is also a kind of portmanteau, constructed in the Middle Ages when Christians -- who didn't understand the special Masoretic vowel markings for the Divine Name in Jewish Hebrew manuscripts -- mistakenly conflated the consonants of YHWH with the vowels of adonai.

"Yahweh" is the more accurate rendering, and is now widely used by Christian authors, contrary to your claim that they are somehow trying to "hide" the Divine Name.

It doesn't matter where the vowels are in the Name. If a person wants to use God's name, he could pronounce each of the letters in "YHWH." Yohd Heh Waw Heh. There is no excuse for not using God's name. "Jehovah" is the pronunciation that the King James translators preferred, and it is perfectly fine. So is "Yahweh," and a host of other pronunciations, depending on what culture one is living within.

Nobody has completely succeeded in hiding the Divine Name, thankfully, and scrutinizing Bible readers know that it is in the Bible canon, but it is not used by anyone because church leaders don't teach their flocks that God's name is important, regardless of Jesus teaching that it is in the Our Father, or, the Lord's Prayer. "Our Father who art in heaven, hallowed be thy name." (Matthew 6:9) Priests and ministers feel that God's name and His Kingdom are "too preachy" subjects. They prefer to preach feel-good projects like soup kitchens and health clinics, which are good and important in themselves, but only secondary to the preaching of God's Kingdom (see Matthew 24:14). They leave out the most important subject to preach about, along with the absence of God's name from His own book!

[onewithhim]

Jesus quotes the OT many times and uses the name "Jehovah" because that name appears in the OT verses that he is quoting.

There is no evidence to support this claim.

Yes there is. Jesus quoted from the OT. The Divine Name appears in the OT 7,000 times, as the Tetragrammaton (YHWH). Do you think that is absurd? When quoting the OT, Jesus surely would have included the Divine Name whereever it appeared in the OT text. (He may not have said "Jehovah," but he would have pronounced it the way it should have been pronounced in his culture at the time. He used it.)

It's odd that you are so rabidly against the Divine Name.

[kjw47]

God gave Michael the name Jesus as a mortal.

Why do you think so?

Rev 6:1= the war in heaven, Michael took that ride of the white horse( righteous war)--Yet 6:2--He receives his crown--Only Jesus gets the crown. Rev 19:11- the continuation of that ride, yet Jesus is the one named on the white horse. That ride stops here at 1 Cor 15:24-28-Jesus must hand the kingdom back to his God and Father and subject himself) = forever.
1Thess 4:16--Upon Jesus return he comes with the trumpet of God( announcing the ride at Rev 6:1)and with the voice of the archangel( its his voice)
Daniel 12:1-- It is Michael who stands up for Gods chosen during the last days) = as Gods appointed king.

There is no Jesus named in the OT-- He became Jesus as a mortal. According to Jesus at John 17:3-The Only true God( Father)= the one who sent Jesus)--did not come down here, Jesus was sent down here by the ONLY TRUE GOD.

God sent his best= his archangel Michael.

[kjw47]

We dont speak Hebrew, thus Jehovah is the name translated from YHVH.

"Jehovah" is a transliteration, not a translation. It is also a kind of portmanteau, constructed in the Middle Ages when Christians -- who didn't understand the special Masoretic vowel markings for the Divine Name in Jewish Hebrew manuscripts -- mistakenly conflated the consonants of YHWH with the vowels of adonai.

"Yahweh" is the more accurate rendering, and is now widely used by Christian authors, contrary to your claim that they are somehow trying to "hide" the Divine Name.

Men can claim they made up Gods name-Jehovah but they are in error.

What I've written above regarding the etymology of the word "Jehovah" is a simple statement of the facts. The word "Jehovah" (or "Yehowah") emerged in the Middle Ages and comes from a simple misreading of the Mesoretic text.

Sources like this one point out that the vowel markings in the Mesoretic text that resulted in the rendering "Jehovah" (or "Yehowah") were not the proper vowels for actually pronouncing the Divine Name. And that scholars agree, based on the historical evidence, that "Yahweh" was most likely how the Divine Name was actually pronounced in the ancient world:

In the second half of the first millennium C.E., Jewish scholars introduced a system of points to represent the missing vowels in the consonantal Hebrew text. When it came to God's name, instead of inserting the proper vowel signs for it, they put other vowel signs to remind the reader that he should say adonai (meaning "Sovereign Lord") or elohim (meaning "God").

The Codex Leningrad ^{B 19⁠A}, of the 11th century C.E., vowel points the Tetragrammaton to read Yehwah, Yehwih, and Yehowah. Ginsburg's edition of the Masoretic text vowel points the divine name to read Yehowah. (Ge 3:14, ftn)

Hebrew scholars generally favor "Yahweh" as the most likely pronunciation. They point out that the abbreviated form of the name is Yah (Jah in the Latinized form), as at Psalm 89:8 and in the expression Ha·lelu-Yah (meaning "Praise Jah, you people!") (Ps 104:35; 150:1,6). Also, the forms Yehoh, Yoh, Yah, and Yahu, found in the Hebrew spelling of the names Jehoshaphat, Joshaphat, Shephatiah, and others, can all be derived from Yahweh. Greek transliterations of the name by early Christian writers point in a somewhat similar direction with spellings such as Iabe and Iaoue, which, as pronounced in Greek, resemble Yahweh.

Are the men who wrote this in error?

The OT is quoted in NT over 200 spots where the name is in the OT. It belongs in the NT at those spots.

Whether you think it "belongs" there or not is irrelevant. All of the historical evidence points to the fact that the authors of the New Testament, like their Jewish contemporaries, wrote kyrios ("Lord") in place of the Divine Name when quoting from the Old Testament.

Is Gods name in your bible over 7000 places=No-Why?

I'll answer your questions once you start answering mine.

I asked above: Which Greek lexicons are "done" from the Latin Vulgate? Where did Jerome say that the Divine Name "belonged in the NT before translating"?

Info on Jerome takes less than 1 whole minute to look it up for self.

All originals were gone when the protestants translated. Catholicism kept Gods word in Latin until the 1300,s, Its well known fact that if one tried to translate to the language of the day, those were burned alive for heresy along with their translating. Not Jesus will or Gods will, but this-2 Thess 2:3) refused to let people read Gods word for themselves.-The Latin Vulgate remained. The Greek lexicons ( NT)were then translated back from Latin to Greek. All the errors carried over.

The JW leaders were allowed to go into the Catholic archives=late 60,s or early 70,s- They came out with proof--The spirit, water and blood are the 3 witness bearers, not the Father son and holy spirit as Catholicism translated in. Many translations either corrected that error or added it to the other one. The JW,s were never allowed back in.

There are many errors--Like even in the OT. The Hebrew scholars say there is no- i am that i am in their Hebrew written ot-I will be what i will be is correct, Yet Catholicism trying to mislead because Jesus said-i am, translated i am that i am into the OT. To try to make it look like Jesus was claiming to be God, but he just answered the pharisees honestly-i am= he lived before Abraham.

Its 100% fact no trinity God was ever served by Israel while serving the true God. It was created in 381 ce at the council of Constantinople when they added the holy spirit as apart of a trinity God. The Greeks and Romans were refusing to go to a religion with 1 God, they had hundreds of Gods, thus the great apostasy created God as a trinity by satans will.