Gods name

[kjw47]

Every bible scholar on earth knows 100% that God put his name --( YHVH(Jehovah) = the tetragramoton) in his bible in over 7000 spots because God wants it there. Thus wicked men by satans will removed Gods name to mislead and replaced it in OT( nearly 6800 spots) with GOD or LORD all capitols--quoted in NT over 200 spots where God willed his name.
Now in light of Jesus, who at the Lords prayer has clearly shown to all that his Fathers name( YHVH(Jehovah) is the #1 most important thing, followed by his Fathers kingdom and will. Thus to a true follower Gods name is #1 most important issue.
So then one must ask why is my religion using altered translations in support of satans will over Gods will on the matter of his name belonging in his bible? Would you say to mislead is the answer? Yes it is.
Here is a prime example of the misleading that it does
Joel 2:21-22--Whoever calls on the name of YHVH(Jehovah) will be saved---quoted 2 x in the NT at Acts 2:21-22--Romans 10:13--But since satan willed translations have LORD at Joel, Lord is at both spots of NT, and all who know Jesus is Lord will call on his name in error because they are being mislead. God is not called LORD in the OT by his will, his name belongs there. it is causing major confusion.
The New world translation corrected that matter, yet every religion using the altered translations condemned the NWT. Why because with that name back in it exposes all of those ones using the altered translations as false religion.
The sad fact is that they know Gods name belongs in all of those spots. So what are you going to do about being mislead?

[kjw47]

with that name back in it exposes all of those ones using the altered translations as false religion.

The insertion of 'Jehovah' into any Greek translation of the NT Bible by a religion exposes such as a false, unreliable and unfaithful religion.

Jerome in the 300,s had originals to do the Latin Vulgate. He told the Catholic leader Gods name belonged in the NT before translating. I can't read Latin so i don't know if Gods name was included in the Vulgate but i seriously doubt it. It was probably removed back then. In the 1970,s the kjv had Jehovah in 8 spots of the OT. In 2015, the divine name kjv came out with Gods name-Jehovah in nearly 6800 spots in OT and over 200 spots NT because the name belongs in all those spots.

[kjw47]

Now in light of Jesus, who at the Lords prayer has clearly shown to all that his Fathers name( YHVH(Jehovah) is the #1 most important thing,

If ''hallowed be your name" means the unpronounceable YHWH ( not Jehovah ) rather than 'name' meaning his history, majesty, sovereignty, and everything he represents, then why did in that same Lords prayer did The Lord say:

"You must pray then this way:
Our Father in the heavens"

No 'Jehovah' there.

They don't know if YHWH or YHVH is correct. I understand there is no w in Hebrew thus YHVH must be correct--We dont speak Hebrew, thus Jehovah is the name translated from YHVH. Plus how little ones thinking is if they do not believe that God has always made his name known and Jesus promised to keep on making it known(John 17:26) Jehovah is that name. The darkness lead by satan fights against Gods name.

[kjw47]

So then one must ask why is my religion using altered translations in support of satans will over Gods will on the matter of his name belonging in his bible? Would you say to mislead is the answer? Yes it is.

Jehovah's Witnesses should ask:

Why is my religion using an altered translation of the extant Greek manuscripts in our Bible, and is this Satans will or Gods will?

Fact--At John 1:1 in the Greek lexicons the true God is called Ton Theon, while the word is called Theon-Why? To show a difference of God and god-Ton Theon=The God, Theon in the same paragraph=a god. The only other occurrence in the NT is at 2 Cor 4:4 where both appear-The true God called Ton Theon= God while satan is called Theon-god. Its the trinity translations that are erred at John 1:1--20 translations in history had a god, 3 had was divine, i had was godlike.
In 1822 a Greek Scholar=Abner Kneeland translated the NT from the Greek lexicons, he compared Greek to English side by side to prove to the world a god was correct at John 1:1--Of course trinity religions rejected all of those translations because that single error proves 100% they are all false religions--1Cor 1:10 proves it as well. Its a true mark of Jesus' 1 religion he is with= Unity of thought(all of Gods 1 truth) no division.) What don't trinity religions understand about no division? Its simple bible milk.

[historia]

The Greek lexicons were done from the Latin vulgate( Catholicism translating). It was kept in Latin for well over 900 years. Few could ever read the bible. No originals of the NT were left by the time the Greek lexicons were translated. The Latin Vulgate existed.

You seem a bit confused. A lexicon is a dictionary. What Greek lexicons do you think were "done" from the Latin Vulgate?

Jerome in the 300,s had originals to do the Latin Vulgate. He told the Catholic leader Gods name belonged in the NT before translating.

You've made this claim twice now. Please provide evidence to support it.

200 spots NT because the name belongs in all those spots

On the contrary, there is no good reason to believe that the Divine Name was ever included in the New Testament.

I understand there is no w in Hebrew thus YHVH must be correct

You understand incorrectly. In modern Hebrew, the letter 'waw' is pronounced like a 'v'. But in ancient Hebrew, it was pronounced as a 'w'. So YHWH is correct.

We dont speak Hebrew, thus Jehovah is the name translated from YHVH.

"Jehovah" is a transliteration, not a translation. It is also a kind of portmanteau, constructed in the Middle Ages when Christians -- who didn't understand the special Masoretic vowel markings for the Divine Name in Jewish Hebrew manuscripts -- mistakenly conflated the consonants of YHWH with the vowels of adonai.

"Yahweh" is the more accurate rendering, and is now widely used by Christian authors, contrary to your claim that they are somehow trying to "hide" the Divine Name.

[Ross]

Fact--At John 1:1 the true God is called Ton Theon, while the word is called Theon-Why? To show a difference of God and god-Ton Theon=The God, Theon in the same paragraph=a god.

Your reference to the prologue of John is a diversion from the subject of your post, and the answers to it which you have failed to answer directly. However I will explain why John 1:1 is written in this manner.

John 1:1 b is obviously referring to The Father with whom The Word existed eternally.

If John 1:1 c had said "And The Word was The God" this would have made the Father and The Word the same person.

The omission of the article before God in the text beautifully reveals to us that John is explaining that 'God' here is the nature and essence of The Word. In other words what the Father is, the Word is. Or to put it another way: And The Word was also God (complete Deity.) It identifies a difference as you say; yes, two persons. Bot both are God. Not a big God and a little (artificial) god.

[1213]

...
Joel 2:21-22--Whoever calls on the name of YHVH(Jehovah) will be saved---quoted 2 x in the NT at Acts 2:21-22--Romans 10:13--But since satan willed translations have LORD at Joel, Lord is at both spots of NT, and all who know Jesus is Lord will call on his name in error because they are being mislead....

Maybe at least some of them knows that God gave His name to Jesus. So, if people calls the name of Jesus, they call also the name of God, because Jesus has God's name?

While I was with them, I protected them by your name that you gave me. I guarded them, and not one of them became lost ex-cept the one who was destined [Lit. the son of] destruction, so that the Scripture might be.
John 17:12

God gave him the name Jesus. He is not Jehovah. Jehovah is his God and Father just like ours John 20:17

I agree that Jesus is a man and son of God. However, the scripture tells God gave His name to Jesus. I don't think Jesus is God's name.

[kjw47]

The Greek lexicons were done from the Latin vulgate( Catholicism translating). It was kept in Latin for well over 900 years. Few could ever read the bible. No originals of the NT were left by the time the Greek lexicons were translated. The Latin Vulgate existed.

You seem a bit confused. A lexicon is a dictionary. What Greek lexicons do you think were "done" from the Latin Vulgate?

Jerome in the 300,s had originals to do the Latin Vulgate. He told the Catholic leader Gods name belonged in the NT before translating.

You've made this claim twice now. Please provide evidence to support it.

200 spots NT because the name belongs in all those spots

On the contrary, there is no good reason to believe that the Divine Name was ever included in the New Testament.

I understand there is no w in Hebrew thus YHVH must be correct

You understand incorrectly. In modern Hebrew, the letter 'waw' is pronounced like a 'v'. But in ancient Hebrew, it was pronounced as a 'w'. So YHWH is correct.

We dont speak Hebrew, thus Jehovah is the name translated from YHVH.

"Jehovah" is a transliteration, not a translation. It is also a kind of portmanteau, constructed in the Middle Ages when Christians -- who didn't understand the special Masoretic vowel markings for the Divine Name in Jewish Hebrew manuscripts -- mistakenly conflated the consonants of YHWH with the vowels of adonai.

"Yahweh" is the more accurate rendering, and is now widely used by Christian authors, contrary to your claim that they are somehow trying to "hide" the Divine Name.

Men can claim they made up Gods name-Jehovah but they are in error. Jehovah is the true living God. Jesus made sure he kept on making his Fathers name known, through his 1 real religion and true followers.
The OT is quoted in NT over 200 spots where the name is in the OT. It belongs in the NT at those spots.
Is Gods name in your bible over 7000 places=No-Why?

[kjw47]

Fact--At John 1:1 the true God is called Ton Theon, while the word is called Theon-Why? To show a difference of God and god-Ton Theon=The God, Theon in the same paragraph=a god.

Your reference to the prologue of John is a diversion from the subject of your post, and the answers to it which you have failed to answer directly. However I will explain why John 1:1 is written in this manner.

John 1:1 b is obviously referring to The Father with whom The Word existed eternally.

If John 1:1 c had said "And The Word was The God" this would have made the Father and The Word the same person.

The omission of the article before God in the text beautifully reveals to us that John is explaining that 'God' here is the nature and essence of The Word. In other words what the Father is, the Word is. Or to put it another way: And The Word was also God (complete Deity.) It identifies a difference as you say; yes, two persons. Bot both are God. Not a big God and a little (artificial) god.

Twisted words of the trinitarians. Catholicism created the trinity at their councils-that is undeniable fact.

[kjw47]

...
Joel 2:21-22--Whoever calls on the name of YHVH(Jehovah) will be saved---quoted 2 x in the NT at Acts 2:21-22--Romans 10:13--But since satan willed translations have LORD at Joel, Lord is at both spots of NT, and all who know Jesus is Lord will call on his name in error because they are being mislead....

Maybe at least some of them knows that God gave His name to Jesus. So, if people calls the name of Jesus, they call also the name of God, because Jesus has God's name?

While I was with them, I protected them by your name that you gave me. I guarded them, and not one of them became lost ex-cept the one who was destined [Lit. the son of] destruction, so that the Scripture might be.
John 17:12

God gave him the name Jesus. He is not Jehovah. Jehovah is his God and Father just like ours John 20:17

I agree that Jesus is a man and son of God. However, the scripture tells God gave His name to Jesus. I don't think Jesus is God's name.

God gave Michael the name Jesus as a mortal.

[1213]

God gave Michael the name Jesus as a mortal.

Why do you think so?