God created all things by Jesus Christ

[Stewardofthemystery]

This is another way to prove the identity of Jesus Christ the Son of God as being the very Word of God.

Notice…

Ephesians 3:9
And to make all men see what is the fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the world hath been hid in God, who created all things by Jesus Christ:

And here….

Hebrews 1:2
Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;

And here….

Hebrews 11:3
Through faith we understand that the worlds were framed by the word of God, so that things which are seen were not made of things which do appear.

In the above 3 verses we see that Jesus Christ, the Son of God, and the Word of God are the same, by which God created all things.

Peace and God bless

[otseng]

[Replying to onewithhim in post #38]

I'm some sick and tired of Trinitarian Christianity - get me the fuck out of here and ban me. I fucking can't stand trinitarianism! I mean it FUCKING BAN ME AND GET ME THE FUCK AWAY FROM DIABOLICAL TRINITARIAN FUCKING CHRISTIANITY!

Moderator Action

Banned.

[Capbook]

Romans 9:5 : Theirs are the patriarchs, and from them is traced the human ancestry of Christ, who is God [EQUAL (to)] all, forever praised! Amen.NIV

Are you happy that the above ?

Are you accustom of changing the words in the Bible?

I did not change the words in the bible, I changed the words in the post - isn't that what you told me to do?

I am not the one who post it, and I've read some that your translators have also changed words in the Bible. That I wonder if you are accustom doing it.
Back to the thread's title, yes I believed Jesus in Heb 1:10 laid the foundations of the earth, and the heavens are the work of His hands.

You READ everything ABOUT certain things, rather than looking into it yourself. You say you "read" that the NWT has changed words in the Bible. Have you compared Bible versions and Interlinears to see for yourself? The only changes that have been made were by other translators following the King James' translators' version. They already believed that Jesus was God. They didn't follow the original Hebrew or Greek.

Other Bible translations are thought for thought translations.
While KJV are word for word translation with corresponding Hebrew and Greek word equivalent.
Wikipedia states that NWT add "a" in John 1:1. Why?
Is it in Rev 22:18?
Of course many verses that say Jesus is God.

No there are NO verses that say Jesus is God. And the KJV does not render translation word for word. What those committee members did was translate from the Latin Vulgate.

"A" is not "added" in John 1:1. It is understood there in the Greek and is translated as such from Greek to English. In Greek when the article for God Almighty appears, we know that God Almighty is meant. When there is no article, we know that it is NOT referring to God Almighty but to a highly revered, powerful individual. That is what "god" meant to the people of John's day. They knew he was differentiating God Almighty from a respected powerful individual, the Word, Jesus Christ.

The Emphatic Diaglott by Benjamin Wilson renders John 1:1 as "a god." Moffatt's Translation says "the Word was Divine, not God. There are versions of the Bible that recognize the different way Greek is translated into English, using articles or the lack thereof to indicate what the person referred to is.

("Divine" means "from or of God," but does not indicate God Almighty.)

Rev.22:18 is referring to God, the Father, whose words of the Revelation are unique to Him. He gave the Revelation to Jesus, so it is His book. It is not unusual that He should refer to Himself a lot in the book. He refers to Himself as the Alpha and Omega.

The author conclude that it is not the correct translation of the verse. https://www.psephizo.com/biblical-studi ... was-a-god/

This is a question I quite often get asked in relation to conversations with Jehovah’s Witnesses and the New World Translation (NWT). The NWT translates the end of John 1.1 as ‘the Word as a god’ in order to avoid the identification of Jesus with the God of the Old Testament, and avoid seeing Jesus as God incarnate, part of the Trinity, as does orthodox Christian belief.

As we will see, this is an incorrect translation of the Greek text.

No, it is not an incorrect translation of the Greek text. We don't translate from Greek the way we look at an English sentence. They are not the same. In Greek there is an article that will show who or what is the only thing, in this case, God. "THE God." There is not an article before god concerning "the Word was a god." Therefore the Word was WITH God but was not God Almighty. Greeks at that time understood "god" to mean anyone with great authority and power, such as judges or kings. So John was differentiating between "the" God and the Word. The Word was a powerful venerated individual but, without the article, not God Almighty.

And who translate it that way? It is not the apostle John that differentiates it, it is your translators of the NWT.
And who is it then?

[JehovahsWitness]

And who translate it that way? It is not the apostle John that differentiates it, it is your translators of the NWT.
And who is it then?

The NWT does correctly reflects the original Greek.

[Capbook]

And who translate it that way? It is not the apostle John that differentiates it, it is your translators of the NWT.
And who is it then?

The NWT does correctly reflects the original Greek.

Really? I believe you are familiar with this translator which the writer found to be inadequately trained to perform the task of Bible translation. I found this online.
https://www.neverthirsty.org/bible-qa/q ... anslation/

It should be noted that Frederick Franz was Raymond Franz’s uncle and one of the WTBTS’ presidents. It is reported that Frederick Franz, the primary translator of the NWT, had only twenty-one hours of formal classical Greek training at the University of Cincinnati[7] and only two hours of Biblical Greek or Koine Greek.[8] This information was provided in Frederick Franz’s 1911 autobiography in which he published his own college transcript.[9] It is important to note that Koine Greek is the language taught in theological seminaries for Biblical studies. The normal study course lasts for two years or four semesters. This means that the primary translator of the NWT was inadequately trained to perform the task of Bible translation.

[JehovahsWitness]

And who translate it that way? It is not the apostle John that differentiates it, it is your translators of the NWT.
And who is it then?

The NWT does correctly reflects the original Greek.

Really? I believe you are familiar with this translator ...

Regardless of qualifications, the NWT does correctly reflects the original Greek in question.

[onewithhim]

And who translate it that way? It is not the apostle John that differentiates it, it is your translators of the NWT.
And who is it then?

The NWT does correctly reflects the original Greek.

Really? I believe you are familiar with this translator which the writer found to be inadequately trained to perform the task of Bible translation. I found this online.
https://www.neverthirsty.org/bible-qa/q ... anslation/

It should be noted that Frederick Franz was Raymond Franz’s uncle and one of the WTBTS’ presidents. It is reported that Frederick Franz, the primary translator of the NWT, had only twenty-one hours of formal classical Greek training at the University of Cincinnati[7] and only two hours of Biblical Greek or Koine Greek.[8] This information was provided in Frederick Franz’s 1911 autobiography in which he published his own college transcript.[9] It is important to note that Koine Greek is the language taught in theological seminaries for Biblical studies. The normal study course lasts for two years or four semesters. This means that the primary translator of the NWT was inadequately trained to perform the task of Bible translation.

You are not contributing to a meaningful discussion by attacking someone you think translated the NT from the Greek to English. Shall we take apart the Bible YOU favor? Who translated the one that you use often? Shall we have a battle of the translators?

[myth-one.com]

This is another way to prove the identity of Jesus Christ the Son of God as being the very Word of God.

Notice…

Ephesians 3:9
And to make all men see what is the fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the world hath been hid in God, who created all things by Jesus Christ:

And here….

Hebrews 1:2
Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;

And here….

Hebrews 11:3
Through faith we understand that the worlds were framed by the word of God, so that things which are seen were not made of things which do appear.

In the above 3 verses we see that Jesus Christ, the Son of God, and the Word of God are the same, by which God created all things.

Peace and God bless

The Word created everything, not Jesus:

John 1
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

2 The same was in the beginning with God.

3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.

Jesus was not the Word, Jesus was the Word made flesh, or human:

John 1:14
And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

So Jesus did not exist in the beginning.

[onewithhim]

[Replying to myth-one.com in post #47]

Jesus is the Word. He existed for billions of years before coming down to the earth. He said that he came from above. "So he went on to say to them: 'You are from the realms below; I am from the realms above. You are from this world; I am not from this world.'" (John 8:23)

[myth-one.com]

[Replying to myth-one.com in post #47]

Jesus is the Word.

No, Jesus was the Word made flesh:

And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us... (John 1:14)

But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honor; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man. (Hebrews 2:9)

He existed for billions of years before coming down to the earth.

The Word existed in the beginning.

The Word made flesh, or Jesus, was born about 2024 years ago.

They are different!

[Capbook]

And who translate it that way? It is not the apostle John that differentiates it, it is your translators of the NWT.
And who is it then?

The NWT does correctly reflects the original Greek.

Really? I believe you are familiar with this translator which the writer found to be inadequately trained to perform the task of Bible translation. I found this online.
https://www.neverthirsty.org/bible-qa/q ... anslation/

It should be noted that Frederick Franz was Raymond Franz’s uncle and one of the WTBTS’ presidents. It is reported that Frederick Franz, the primary translator of the NWT, had only twenty-one hours of formal classical Greek training at the University of Cincinnati[7] and only two hours of Biblical Greek or Koine Greek.[8] This information was provided in Frederick Franz’s 1911 autobiography in which he published his own college transcript.[9] It is important to note that Koine Greek is the language taught in theological seminaries for Biblical studies. The normal study course lasts for two years or four semesters. This means that the primary translator of the NWT was inadequately trained to perform the task of Bible translation.

You are not contributing to a meaningful discussion by attacking someone you think translated the NT from the Greek to English. Shall we take apart the Bible YOU favor? Who translated the one that you use often? Shall we have a battle of the translators?

I don't meant to offend but it is online. I prefer to use the Authorized Version KJV and some thought for thought translation.
Relating to the thread; God the Father addressed Jesus as Lord, Heb 1:10, and because He is addressed as the Creator of all things, and as immutable. No one, on reading the Psalm 102, ever would doubt that it referred to God, and if the apostle meant to apply it to the Lord Jesus it proves most conclusively that he is divine.(Barne's)
Heb 1:10 And, Thou, Lord, in the beginning hast laid the foundation of the earth; and the heavens are the works of thine hands