Mithrae wrote:
Goose wrote:
But for the sake of argument let’s grant your argument and say Matthew was intending to write a full and exhaustive genealogy but missed a few names thereby made an error in his genealogy. This seems to me to be such a minor error in comparison to how many names he got right (14 out of 18 is 78%) that I have to ask, what’s the point of pressing this “contradiction� so hard? It seems to me the
only point amounts to no more than an attempt to scrounge up a counter example, no matter how trivial it may be, in order to falsify the doctrine of inerrancy. Is that your end game as well?
As when you and I spent many pages discussing whether "
none of you can be my disciple if he does not renounce all his own possessions" 'really means' that all would-be followers of Jesus must renounce their possessions, or when you insisted for several pages that civilian casualties in the Allied bombing of Dresden are equivalent to aggressively attacking entire ethnic groups determined to kill every many, woman and child among them (that either both are genocide or neither is, that they are fundamentally equivalent), it's a discussion which holds a certain fascination for its own sake: The lengths people will go to in order to persuade themselves and protect themselves against any critique of their beliefs, however valid.
I’m detecting a pejorative undertone in this last comment as though I have had to go to irrational lengths to defend my position. I suppose it’s only natural to think the guy on the other side of the fence is irrational for being over there otherwise we would probably hop over and join him on his side. All I can say is that I made every attempt to work within the rules of inference and standard definitions used by logicians and philosophers. I’m not the one who, in this debate, had to go to the irrational length of trashing
the formal definition of a logical contradiction such that
A and ~A as
“an arbitrary/meaningless goalpost� in order to undermine the other guy’s argument. Think, for just a moment, about how absurd it is to imply that definition is “meaningless� and “arbitrary.�
But since that phenomenon is obviously nothing new to me (or any of our readers, I'm sure), after a couple of posts about Matthew's genealogy with both JW and BJS I tried to bring their attention back to Difflugia's original point: Accepting the apparent impossibility of some folk ever acknowledging an error in their Book, what happens when we apply those 'standards' more generally? Neither JW nor BJS were willing to continue that discussion, but perhaps you will.
Maybe they didn’t continue the discussion because they weren’t interested in discussing what you thought was minor error, but were instead interested in discussing bonafide contradictions.
If someone says that there are 14 miles from New York to Los Angeles that's not incorrect; they're just talking about certain particular miles which they find interesting, right?
But all we have here is the utterance, “there are 14 miles from New York to Los Angeles.� I’ve been given no surrounding context by which to establish what this utterance is intended to convey. Who said it? Where was it said? Why was it said? Was it said in a Road Atlas of the U.S.? Was it said in a comic strip? Is it a song title? Is it the punch line of a joke? Without surrounding context I can’t definitively say this was an error. If I were to make the starting assumption it was asserted as an explicit statement of fact concerning the distance from New York, New York to Los Angeles, California then it
prima facie appears incorrect. But what if my starting assumptions are wrong?
Consider another example. What if someone says, “the distance from London to Paris is 45 miles�? You say that’s incorrect because it’s more like
212 miles from London to Paris (as the crow flies). But this statement was taken without surrounding context and because of that you’ve falsely assumed the person meant the distance from London,
England to Paris,
France because that’s the obvious meaning, right? But this statement was made by a resident of London, Ontario to another resident of London, Ontario and it was actually made in regards to the
distance from London, Ontario (Canada) to Paris, Ontario (Canada), which is about 45 miles.
Context matters. And this is the problem with ripping statements out of their surrounding context and not taking background information into consideration. And that’s exactly what often happens in these debates when the laundry list of “contradictions� is trotted out and dumped on the Christian. Out of context quotes juxtaposed to one another and voila look at all the contradictions! It’s low level stuff.
By the criteria being applied to the bible there is literally nothing which could be said to contain errors.
The criteria demands context be taken into account.
You're making a big fuss about text explicitly containing A and ~A in formal logical terms, but of course even those examples will not be acknowledged - surely one of the passages must be "figurative" or "hyperbole" or mean something "in a different sense."
I’m making a fuss about the text explicitly containing a logical contradiction such that
A and ~A because that’s the standard definition of a contradiction. And if one of the passages is meant as hyperbole or metaphor or meant in a different sense that’s a valid objection to the claim it’s a logical contradiction such that
A and ~A. Attempting to poison the well with some sarcasm doesn’t invalidate those valid objections to the claim two particular juxtaposed statements constitute a logical contradiction.
You bear the burden to prove the contradiction in your examples beyond merely juxtaposing two statements that have the
prima facie appearance of a contradiction. Don’t just do the typical thing the
Bible Is Full of Contradictions crowd does and rip two statements out of their surrounding context, juxtapose them, and declare a contradiction. Then expect the Christian to prove you wrong. Show me why they are a contradiction. Prove it.
But let’s look at the first one just to show how context matters.
"with God all things are possible (dynatos)" ~ Matthew 19:26, Mark 10:27
"it is impossible (adynatos) for God to lie" ~ Hebrews 6:18
The context of Matthew 19:26 is a statement made in relation to God’s ability to effect salvation in contrast to people’s inability. By extension God’s power to effect change in his creation and the universe which is otherwise impossible for people.
�23 And Jesus said to His disciples, “Truly I say to you, it is hard for a rich man to enter the kingdom of heaven. 24 Again I say to you, it is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle, than for a rich man to enter the kingdom of God.� 25 When the disciples heard this, they were very astonished and said, “Then who can be saved?� 26 And looking at them Jesus said to them, “With people this is impossible, but with God all things are possible.�
The context of Hebrews is in regards to God’s moral character.
�17 In the same way God, desiring even more to show to the heirs of the promise the unchangeableness of His purpose, interposed with an oath, 18 so that by two unchangeable things in which it is impossible for God to lie, we who have taken refuge would have strong encouragement to take hold of the hope set before us.�
But whereas those direct contradictions really are quite trivial - presumably either the author of Hebrews or Jesus simply misspoke, for example - the direct contradiction of Matthew's claim that all the generations from David to the exile are 14 generations against the Tanakh's record that in fact there were 19 is not a simple mistake but rather a direct manipulation of the facts for theological ends. It's obvious, as both you and BJS have agreed, that this magic number 14 was intended to make a theological point, so this 'error' is not simply a mistake; rather the three adjustments made by Matthew, all plausibly understood as those most likely to go unnoticed by a casual reader, are a case of complete disregard for truth and fact (an ongoing pattern throughout the gospel with the invented massacre of the innocents, false prophecies of Jesus returning before Israel had been evangelized, mass resurrection on Good Friday and so on).
This is something of Red Herring from
your original claim that Matthew/Chronicle was an example of the kind of explicit logical contradiction such that
A and ~A that I was asking to see. Your argument here is a suggestion that Matthew’s manipulation of genealogical lists “
is not simply a mistake� but rather “a case of complete disregard for truth and fact.� I agree that Matthew’s manipulation of the lists by omitting a few names was not simply a mistake but done with the intention of making a theological point. However, this was an acceptable practise. Jews didn’t think omitting names from a genealogical list or reworking them to make a theological point was always some kind of error or intent to deceive. If Matthew was writing to Jews who were already aware of these practises with genealogies exactly who do you think Matthew was trying to deceive?
Obviously, and again as I pointed out to both JW and BJS, an ardent defense of Matthew's false claims about literal content as nevertheless somehow being valid would imply that any literal content in the bible for which there is some reason to question veracity could be legitimately presumed to be literally false... yet still some kind of valid "theological point." Such absurd defenses of biblical contradictions, taken seriously, would not only mean that everything in the whole world is inerrant but also that 'truth' becomes all but meaningless.
I don’t think that’s what is being done. No one is trying to infer a valid theological point from a known or presumed falsehood. Certainly it could be the case that a false theological point is inferred from the facts. But that’s something different. Look, ancient biographers shaped the image of their subject by including particular facts and omitting others. It’s just how it was done. No one thought this was dishonest, an error, or false. Read Plutarch’s intro to his biography of Alexander the Great.
http://penelope.uchicago.edu/Thayer/e/r ... er*/3.html
And then read Plutarch’s opening line of Alexander the Great’s lineage.
�As for the lineage of Alexander, on his father's side he was a descendant of Heracles through Caranus, and on his mother's side a descendant of Aeacus through Neoptolemus; this is accepted without any question.�
Lineage in ancient biographies implied something meaningful about the subject. They didn’t include lineage just for the sake of writing a lineage.