Does the first cause theory depend on special pleading?

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Does the first cause theory depend on special pleading?

YES
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NO
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achilles12604
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Does the first cause theory depend on special pleading?

Post #1

Post by achilles12604 »

No less than 3 (cog,goat and duke) non -theists have accused me of using a logical fallacy of special pleading with regard to my idea of the first cause theory.

HISTORY:


From The God Hypothesis

Concerning this topic I put forth the following:
If the universe did begin, it must have had a cause. Nothing comes from nothing. If nothing happened or existed, then nothing would be the result. Obviously something happened because we are here. So something changed. Changes require causes.

This cause had to have certain requirements.

1) It must have been space less or at the very least outside of the confines of this universe.

2) It must have been timeless. Time it is shown by Einstein and others after him directly interacts with matter and space inside this universe. It is a factor which exists inside this universe. If there was no universe then there would be nothing to interact with. Hence the cause of the universe must be timeless.
I followed this with :
First you need to define a person. Then define the start of the person.

then you can identify the cause of that start. What you have done is list a series of results of different causes. But each of these steps had a cause which allowed it to be so. Likewise each of these steps would not have occurred except that something took place. Without that something, the step would not have occurred.

Lets say (because I am personally against abortion) that a person exists after conception. Before conception it is not a person but rather two sets of genes.

The genes come together and combine DNA which begins the growth process.

Strictly speaking the combining of the DNA is what caused the person to exist.

Quote:
Why must the existence of the universe have a cause? I'm not particularly well versed on universe theory, but I am aware that there is a line of thought whereby this universe is one in a long line of universes that expand, collapse, expand, collapse. Do they need a cause?


I am familiar with this theory. It is no longer accepted by scientists in every secular area of society (not to mention Christian).

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Steady_state_theory
Each step has a cause all the way back to the formation of the universe. So we are back at the "first cause".

I am making one assumption. That the universe did have a cause. However I am making this assumption based on 100% of the observable data ever collected or witnessed by mankind since our existence. There has never been an occurrence which did not have a cause.


If the universe was uncaused, and yet began, then you must explain how nothing changed, and yet the universe changed. It is a logical impossibility. Either the universe (or something which became the universe) changed, or nothing happened. But we know something happened, so something changed. Changes require causes. And around we go.
To this I received the following replies:
Cogitoergosum wrote:
What caused God to exist?
Or are you going to invent a special plea for GOD.
achilles12604 wrote:

Now if the universe began to exist and thus needed a cause, this cause had to meet certain criteria.

Criteria that you will invent to fit GOD.
Duke of Vandals wrote:
Cogitoergosum wrote:
What caused God to exist?
Or are you going to invent a special plea for GOD.

Cogi has asked an important question one which Christians do create special pleas for.
Goat Wrote:
You then declare God to be the one thing that 'always' existed, thereby giving
God an attribute that is not given to anything else. Because you say evertying was 'caused' to exist but god, you are using the logical fallacy of "Special Pleading".

From http://www.nizkor.org/features/fallacie ... ading.html

Quote:
Special Pleading is a fallacy in which a person applies standards, principles, rules, etc. to others while taking herself (or those she has a special interest in) to be exempt, without providing adequate justification for the exemption. This sort of "reasoning" has the following form:


You are giving the special attribute to God of 'not being caused', and evertying else to 'have a cause'. There is no reason to do that, except to try to 'define' god into place.

So lets investigate the possibility of me using a special pleading in my logic.


Using Goats link to special pleading fallacies we get the definition of special pleading.

Description of Special Pleading
Special Pleading is a fallacy in which a person applies standards, principles, rules, etc. to others while taking herself (or those she has a special interest in) to be exempt, without providing adequate justification for the exemption. This sort of "reasoning" has the following form:

1. Person A accepts standard(s) S and applies them to others in circumtance(s) C.
2. Person A is in circumstance(s) C.
3. Therefore A is exempt from S.

The person committing Special Pleading is claiming that he is exempt from certain principles or standards yet he provides no good reason for his exemption. That this sort of reasoning is fallacious is shown by the following extreme example:

1. Barbara accepts that all murderers should be punished for their crimes.
2. Although she murdered Bill, Barbara claims she is an exception because she really would not like going to prison.
3. Therefore, the standard of punishing murderers should not be applied to her.

This is obviously a blatant case of special pleading. Since no one likes going to prison, this cannot justify the claim that Barbara alone should be exempt from punishment.


Using their breakdown I will hence forth apply it in this manner:

G = God
U = Universe
CTC = criteria for cause


The claim made by these three non-theists is that I am using special pleading in reference to God.

The case I made about the universe is that anything which begins to exist must have a cause. Despite goat's demands that I prove this, it is a universally accepted scientific theory. If goat wants to debate this universally accepted fact then start a thread on it and I would like Goat to back up his demand for proof with at least ONE scientific source (author, magazine, anything at all) which agrees with him claim that something can in fact come from nothing and that things spontaneously occur without any reason what so ever.

Moving on with THIS topic, I made the following claims:

1) Anything which begins to exist, must have a cause.

2) The universe began to exist.

3) Therefore the universe must have a cause.

So long as my one assumption (anything that begins to exist must have a cause) is correct, this logic follows along correctly. So there is no fallacy here.

Next I wrote that the cause for the universe must have several attributes.

(disclaimer: before beginning I would like to point out that I am aware of the multiverse theory and that this totally unproven theory allows for the cause of THIS universe to be within another space and time. But then the problem is simply moved out one more universe so for the sake of moving the topic at hand along, I am going to assume only this universe exists)

1) It must be space less. By this I mean it must be outside the confines of the universe it created. This is because the cause of the universe can not depend on the universe's existence. Since the universe (remember my disclaimer) encompasses all matter, anything without anything, (no matter, space,etc) can be defined as space less.

http://imagine.gsfc.nasa.gov/docs/ask_a ... 0902a.html
http://www.newton.dep.anl.gov/newton/as ... AST224.HTM
Author: janette l gubala
What is beyond space?

Response #: 1 of 1
Author: asmith
Nothing! Either space goes on forever (is infinite) or it comes back around
in some kind of closed loop, but the way we understand space right now, it
is impossible for it to have any edges, and so there is no direction you
could point and say "50 yards in that direction space ends". Since there
are not any ends, there is not really any way to understand what "beyond"
means. But there could be other things that "exist" that are somehow
outside our own universe - parallel universes!
2) It must be timeless since without reference to space, time is meaningless. Einsteins theories show us the direct correlation of time and matter.

Now the universe does not fit these two criteria for obvious reasons. Therefore going back to my original point, the universe (U) can not fit the criteria for the cause of the universe (CFC).


Christian theology presents a God which does fit these criteria however. We portray him as both outside space and timeless. Also the design of God came BEFORE the criteria for creation.

So the argument we are just designing God to fit the criteria isn't valid since God pre-dates the criteria.

We can not be molding the criteria to fit God because the criteria for the cause of the universe is fixed. For example I could not make the claim that being 5'5" was a criteria for the cause of the universe because it invalidates the logical order of things because for anything to be 5'5" it must have something to compare to and it must already exist, both of which are impossible without the universe's existence.

So we Christians present a God whose characterizes were in existence before the question about the criteria for cause of the universe was asked. It is just a happy coincidence that the criteria of God and the criteria for the cause of the universe are the same. (or is it?)



IS MY ARGUMENT SPECIAL PLEADING?
The person committing Special Pleading is claiming that he is exempt from certain principles or standards yet he provides no good reason for his exemption.
This is the key sentence in deciding if I am guilty of special pleading or not. The standards I have set for the universe and deny for God fall into my first premise:

[center]Whatever begins to exist requires a cause[/center]

I say that this premise DOES apply to the universe and it DOES NOT apply to God.

Here is my reasoning for this.

Why it does apply to the universe:

Within this universe, every experience and experiment conducted by mankind shows that if nothing happens, then nothing happens. If you do not plant a seed, then a tree will not grow. However if a tree does grow, then a seed MUST have been planted. There is no alternative. Since this rule is consistent throughout the entire universe, it is logical to think that this same law applies to the universe itself. In addition to this we have evidence of such a beginning. We have discovered the once hypothetical background radiation which would have followed an explosive beginning to the universe. Red light shift indicates that all other galaxies are moving away from us. This would be very likely if the universe did have an explosive beginning but unlikely if the universe always was.

Why it does not apply to God:

Did God begin to exist? Scientifically there is no answer. The only answer can be found in theology and that answer is no.

It is important to remember here that I am not changing or reinventing God so he fits with the criteria of this argument. The idea that God was eternal dates back to at least the writing of genesis which is well before the BCE./CE switch. So I am not fitting the facts to God, not am I fitting God to the facts. They are both the same.

Once again the CFC of the universe is fixed. If the universe began (which is an accepted analysis of science), then its cause must fall within certain guidelines, which I established. The fact that the God described in the bible happens to fit these guidelines is not the product of theology but rather of coincidence.


CONCLUSION:

With my reasons for applying the criteria to the universe and not to God in mind I can safely say that I have not committed the logical fallacy of special pleading.

The only case in which I would have done this is if God was supposed to be held to the same standards as everything else within this universe. From Goat's source :

[center]2. Person A is in circumstance(s) C.[/center]

But the God of Christianity does not fit into the circumstances applied to the universe. The laws of the universe don't apply to God simply due to his nature.

Looking at this from the other side, if the laws of this universe applied to God, then god could not have been the first cause because he would be dependent on the universe. But then we are still left with the problem of the cause of the universe.

In essence what I am trying to say in as lengthy manner as possible is that whatever caused the universe, IS NOT bound by the laws of this universe. Therefore, I can not be guilty of special pleading because person A (God) is not in the circumstances described for and applied to the universe itself.
It is a first class human tragedy that people of the earth who claim to believe in the message of Jesus, whom they describe as the Prince of Peace, show little of that belief in actual practice.

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Post #31

Post by achilles12604 »

The Duke of Vandals wrote:
You must prove (with evidence) that god is possible and prove that things without causes (like god) are possible.
Wait. So you are saying that I must first prove my conclusion before I can offer evidence for my conclusion?


The plausibility of God's existence is my conclusion. Not my proof. How can your demand that I prove God's existence with tools which logically can never test the God described in the bible before I ever insert evidence that God's existence is plausible . . . . be in any way logical?
Last edited by achilles12604 on Sat Mar 10, 2007 9:59 am, edited 1 time in total.
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Post #32

Post by achilles12604 »

GENERAL QUESTION TO ALL NON_THEISTS


Why do I have to prove God's existence before I can show that the criteria for the first cause MATCHES the description of him in the bible?
Last edited by achilles12604 on Sat Mar 10, 2007 10:06 am, edited 2 times in total.
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Post #33

Post by achilles12604 »

The Duke of Vandals wrote:
achilles12604 wrote:If I left out God entirely and substituted in the plausibility of a multiverse where other universes had different laws of physics I doubt you would fight me so hard. Yet this option yields the same result in my hypothesis as God does and contains the same amount of evidence for its existence as God does.
Please.

There is not a single scientist on the planet convinced of the multiverse the way Christians are convinced of god. The multiverse hypothesis is one critical step closer to being evidenced than the god hypothesis: We know one universe exists: our own.
Your argument is that scientists are not convinced in their hypothesis as much as Christians are?

How is this an argument?
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Post #34

Post by achilles12604 »

ONE MORE GENERAL QUESTION FOR NON-THEISTS

The entire premise for a special pleading fallacy is that both item A and item B have the same criteria.

However, the first cause argument DEMANDS that item A (the universe) and item B (The multiverse,God,Aliens,Etc) have extreamly different characteristics.



How on earth can this result in a special pleading?
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Post #35

Post by achilles12604 »

The Duke of Vandals wrote:
I am not only pointing out that god is unproven, I am pointing out the characteristics of god which you allege are unproven. Your argument is unsupported skyhookery.

And I am not only pointing out that God could be as untrue as pink unicorns which talk to green fairies, but that doesn't mean that my hypothesis is invalid because he doesn't need to exist for my argument to work since the only thing that needed to exist was the DESCRIPTION of him to compare to the criteria for the universe. I am also pointing out that as long as you continue to demand I prove God, you are creating more straw men since I can put forth my argument without God existing at all and the ARGUMENT would still be valid.

I never demanded I was proving God;s existence. I was proving that THE DESCRIPTION of God given in the bible, matches with the criteria for the cause.
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Post #36

Post by Furrowed Brow »

achilles12604 wrote:
Furrowed Brow wrote:Hi Achilles,
Achilles wrote:1) Anything which begins to exist, must have a cause.

2) The universe began to exist.

3) Therefore the universe must have a cause.

So long as my one assumption (anything that begins to exist must have a cause) is correct, this logic follows along correctly. So there is no fallacy here.
Well I think it can be shown that you 1st assumption is questionable. I started a thread a whle back Is it really possible to get something from nothing?
Furrowed Brow wrote: Def 1: nothing = no things and no principles.
Def 2: nothing = no things and the principle "you cannot get something from nothing".

The first question is: where did the "you can't get owt from nowt" rule come from? Is this a principle that belongs to logic or empiricism?

I say it is empirical.

The second question: is not def 1 a more minimal possibility than Def 2 and therefore closer to being absolute nothing.
I say it is.
So I think on a point of logic that for "anything to begins to exist must have a cause" is questionable. The assumption relies on the principle "you can't get something to exist from nothing". But that principle in turn relies on the principle "anything that exists must have a cause". That piece of reasoning being circular.

However I suggest the "you can't get something from nothing rule" is merely putative, and places a restriction on "nothing" the legitimacy of which is not proved, nor is it actually needed. Thus Occam's razor can be applied.

To stave off Occam's razor I think you will need to do more work to support your assumption and show it is necessary. Otherwise I'll stick to my guns :2gun: and say not everything that begins to exist is caused.
Ok thats cool

Can you give me an example of something which began but was uncaused? If so I will drop this entirely right now.
Well the universe. :eyebrow: Id also say Free Will but that is a whole different debate I have had with Bugmaster. Then we could look at things like virtual particles, and quantum fluctuations. Science does not stand against uncaused events. It only maintains certain principles should not be violated like conservation of energy, momentum etc. The principle that you can't get something form nothing is neither a logical principle or a physical law. A virtual particle can pop into existence and travel no further than its Compton wavelength before it pops out of existence. It can do this because Heisenberg uncertainty principle allows the law of conservation of energy to be suspended for the probability of duration T and Energy E that when multiplied are not greater than h. So here science applies principles that limit a behaviour, but not the cause of the behaviour.

Then we can look at this another way. What we really mean by cause and effect. Is this just a conceptual tool for understanding the world which let us make sense of it - but that is the extent of the role it plays. Say you type a response to this post. Did this post cause you to type a reply, did your motivation for defending your position cause you to type, did neurons firing in your brain cause you to type. etc etc. What exactly is a cause? They cant all be the cause - can they? Or is talk of "causes" just a way of interpreting events? Causes thus belonging to interpretative frameworks and not ontology.

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Post #37

Post by Goat »

achilles12604 wrote:GENERAL QUESTION TO ALL NON_THEISTS


Why do I have to prove God's existence before I can show that the criteria for the first cause MATCHES the description of him in the bible?
What is his 'description' in the bible, in your opinion.

After all, Genesis has God working with pre existing material... his spirit moved over the waters. It does not say that God created the waters.. but his spirit moved over it.

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Post #38

Post by Cephus »

achilles12604 wrote:My entire argument consists of two phases. The physical, and then my hypothesis. Is this not how science itself tests things? It takes the known and then creates a hypothesis about an unknown.
No, you don't know what you're talking about. Science makes observations about the universe, then suggests a hypothesis to explain something that it doesn't understand. Then... and this is the part you're missing, it TESTS the hypothesis to see if it's true. It doesn't just wildly invent things, it TESTS them. When do you think you're going to get around to actually TESTING your hypothesis?

Otherwise, it's just a wild-eyed guess that means nothing.

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Post #39

Post by The Duke of Vandals »

achilles12604 wrote:Wait. So you are saying that I must first prove my conclusion before I can offer evidence for my conclusion?
Horrible evasion.

You want to offer god as a possible explanation for the origin of the universe. It's up to you to prove that this god is even a possibility. Like our example of the dead body, without a buller hole "gunned down" isn't a valid hypothesis.

Your argument relies on a special pleading that things without causes are possible. That's a claim you need to support or concede the argument. Do so in your next post or I will conclude you are trying to save face / stalling / evading / otherwise without ability to support your claim.

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Post #40

Post by The Duke of Vandals »

achilles12604 wrote:Your argument is that scientists are not convinced in their hypothesis as much as Christians are?
Are you CAPABLE of arguing without resorting to gross mischaracterizations of your opponent's argument? You compared the god hypothesis to the multiverse hypothesis. I showed how these things are not alike.

I'm still expecting the evidence for god being possible in your next post to this thread else you concede the debate.

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