cnorman18 wrote:InTheFlesh wrote:cnorman18 wrote:InTheFlesh wrote:cnorman18 wrote:
There are Messianic references in the OT, to be sure; but few, if any, apply to Jesus, and the passages that are alleged to refer to Jesus are generally talking about something else. In no case is the Messiah said to be sent to save us from our sins, to give us free entry into Heaven, or to be God incarnate. He is to be the Savior of Israel, not of individual souls, and an ordinary man. An anointed King, to be sure, but mortal and the son of human beings, not of God, and possessed of no supernatural powers or attributes.
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Do not think that I will accuse you to the Father:
there is one that accuseth you, even Moses, in whom ye trust.
For had ye believed Moses, ye would have believed me: for he wrote of me.
But if ye believe not his writings, how shall ye believe my words?
Is there a reason why you think quoting the New Testament to a Jew would be persuasive?
This forum is for debate. That was preaching. It's neither appreciated nor taken seriously here.
Peace to you, and have a nice day.
I didn't even take notice that you were Jewish,
but how does one debate Christianity without the new testament?
1. I read over my post. How you could have read it and not noticed that is was written by a Jew, I have no idea.
Don't take it personally.
I didn't notice on your profile that you were Jewish when I posted.
BTW, what part of your post indicated that you were Jewish?
2. We are not debating Christianity. We are debating the meaning of the Bible. Separate subjects.
"Argue for and against Christianity"
Isn't this the sub header for this forum?
So I ask again, how does one argue for Christianity without the New Testament?
Am I in the wrong forum?
3. I very clearly was speaking of the Old Testament without reference to the New.
And?
Why can't I make reference to the NEW testament?
Once again, Am I in the wrong forum?
4. My comments, including the ones you quoted, stand. If you'd care to debate them on their merits, feel free; but merely quoting from the NT without further comment--which implies that that quote is to be accepted as true and authoritative just because "Jesus said so"--is, as I said, not debate, but preaching.
What's the difference between quoting from the OLD or NEW?
Is this a Jewish forum?
And why is the OT true, cause Moses said so?
The distortion, falsification, and out-of-context use of quotations from the OT in order to force them to carry a meaning they were never intended to hold, that being "prophecies" of Jesus, has been much debated here, and I don't intend to plow that already thoroughly broken-up ground again. It's pointless. When a given "prophecy" is restored to its context, examined, and proven to have nothing to do with Jesus whatever, the invariable Christian response is, "Yes, it does, and if you were as wise/holy/spiritual/knowledgeable/filled with the Spirit as I am, you'd understand."
You sound like a child.
I have the Spirit and you don't!
How old are you?
Sorry. The meaning of the Bible's words is not always found on the surface, true; but that doesn't mean one gets to throw out the literal meaning of the words entirely. That is dishonest--and especially so, when one comes from a tradition which is noted for its insistence on looking at the literal meaning of Scripture and nothing else on other matters.