The Biblical position on Polygamy

[McCulloch]

Polygamy is prohibited in the Bible and the examples of it occurring prove to end in family dysfunction.

Aside from instructions specifically for elders (bishops) and deacons, is polygamy expressly prohibited in the Bible?

[myth-one.com]

. . . the question being debated and the assertion that was made is " is polygamy expressly prohibited in the Bible?"

6 But from the beginning of the creation God made them male and female.
7 For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and cleave to his wife;
8 And they twain shall be one flesh: so then they are no more twain, but one flesh.

God made mankind as a pair -- male and female. For this cause or reason, He created marriage, so that a man should leave his father and mother and cleave unto his wife.

After one's first marriage, the reason for marriage is fulfilled. That man has found his help mate and they are a pair -- as God made them originally and intended them to be:

And the LORD God said, It is not good that the man should be alone; I will make him an help meet for him.

After a man finds and marries his help mate, they have become as God desired and there is no need for any additional wives.

Of course man (being wiser than God), improves on God's plan by creating polygamy. If everything God created was good, then marriage of one wife is good. But if one wife is good, then certainly more than one is better.

Apparently, many men need more help than can be provided by only the one woman! -- This sentence graciously provided by my wife!

[McCulloch]

After one's first marriage, the reason for marriage is fulfilled. That man has found his help mate and they are a pair -- as God made them originally and intended them to be:

And the LORD God said, It is not good that the man should be alone; I will make him an help meet for him.

After a man finds and marries his help mate, they have become as God desired and there is no need for any additional wives.

Do you have any biblical teachings that limit the purposes of marriage to this one thing? Do you have anything which teaches that once a purpose has been met, that additions being perhaps unnecessary are prohibited?

Of course man (being wiser than God), improves on God's plan by creating polygamy.

Got anything that shows that polygamy was invented by humans in opposition to God? Is there any explanation for God's silence with regard to Jacob's two wives.

"I say to you that many will come from east and west, and recline at the table with Abraham, Isaac and Jacob in the kingdom of heaven;

Just as it is written, " JACOB I LOVED, BUT ESAU I HATED."

By faith Abraham, when he was called, obeyed by going out to a place which he was to receive for an inheritance; and he went out, not knowing where he was going. By faith he lived as an alien in the land of promise, as in a foreign land, dwelling in tents with Isaac and Jacob, fellow heirs of the same promise; for he was looking for the city which has foundations, whose architect and builder is God. [...]All these died in faith, without receiving the promises, but having seen them and having welcomed them from a distance, and having confessed that they were strangers and exiles on the earth. For those who say such things make it clear that they are seeking a country of their own. And indeed if they had been thinking of that country from which they went out, they would have had opportunity to return. But as it is, they desire a better country, that is, a heavenly one Therefore God is not ashamed to be called their God; for He has prepared a city for them. [...]By faith Isaac blessed Jacob and Esau, even regarding things to come.

If everything God created was good, then marriage of one wife is good. But if one wife is good, then certainly more than one is better.

But we are not debating good and better, or even good and not advisable. We are debating allowed and prohibited.

[micatala]

. . . the question being debated and the assertion that was made is " is polygamy expressly prohibited in the Bible?"

6 But from the beginning of the creation God made them male and female.
7 For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and cleave to his wife;
8 And they twain shall be one flesh: so then they are no more twain, but one flesh.

God made mankind as a pair -- male and female. For this cause or reason, He created marriage, so that a man should leave his father and mother and cleave unto his wife.

After one's first marriage, the reason for marriage is fulfilled. That man has found his help mate and they are a pair -- as God made them originally and intended them to be:

And the LORD God said, It is not good that the man should be alone; I will make him an help meet for him.

After a man finds and marries his help mate, they have become as God desired and there is no need for any additional wives.

Of course man (being wiser than God), improves on God's plan by creating polygamy. If everything God created was good, then marriage of one wife is good. But if one wife is good, then certainly more than one is better.

Apparently, many men need more help than can be provided by only the one woman! -- This sentence graciously provided by my wife!

My view is to consider the passage in Genesis as holding up a norm or ideal for that time and addressed to that audience. It is a good thing for a man and women to have a life partner.

However, something being the ideal or norm does not mean any other situation is prohibited.

In fact, Paul writes that deacons should have but one wife. This is a special condition that Paul recommends for being a deacon. It is not a prohibition against polygamy for all.

[myth-one.com]

Do you have any biblical teachings that limit the purposes of marriage to this one thing?

Yes:

6 But from the beginning of the creation God made them male and female.
7 For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and cleave to his wife;

God created marriage to mimic His original creation of mankind. Since God created mankind as one man and one woman, that is the definition of marriage.

After marriage, that one cause for marriage is fulfilled. If the man leaves his mom and dad, marries one woman, forms a new family, and cleaves to his wife, there is no cause for a second marriage. Any secondary multiple marriage would be disruptive, as it has no cause to exist.

If a man married to one woman "marries" another, is it truly a marriage according to God -- as there was no cause for that second marriage?

[McCulloch]

Do you have any biblical teachings that limit the purposes of marriage to this one thing?

Yes:

6 But from the beginning of the creation God made them male and female.
7 For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and cleave to his wife;

God created marriage to mimic His original creation of mankind. Since God created mankind as one man and one woman, that is the definition of marriage.

You are reading into this passage more than what is written. God has made male and female. Males will have to leave their parental home and make a home with their wives.

After marriage, that one cause for marriage is fulfilled. If the man leaves his mom and dad, marries one woman, forms a new family, and cleaves to his wife, there is no cause for a second marriage.

Did you even read my first response? Having no cause is not the same as prohibiting.

Any secondary multiple marriage would be disruptive, as it has no cause to exist.

Why didn't God point this out to Jacob, whom he loved and who was a faithful servant?

If a man married to one woman "marries" another, is it truly a marriage according to God -- as there was no cause for that second marriage?

So six of the twelve tribes are begotten from bastards, according to you. Joseph, Benjamin, Dan, Naphtali, Gad and Asher.

[myth-one.com]

If a man married to one woman "marries" another, is it truly a marriage according to God -- as there was no cause for that second marriage?

So six of the twelve tribes are begotten from bastards, according to you. Joseph, Benjamin, Dan, Naphtali, Gad and Asher.

Good morning,

Actually, I posed that in a question. "If" is a powerful word. I do not know the answer -- so I posed that question. But regardless of the correct answer -- so what? Bastards should not be punished for their parents sin.

[McCulloch]

Actually, I posed that in a question. "If" is a powerful word. I do not know the answer -- so I posed that question. But regardless of the correct answer -- so what? Bastards should not be punished for their parents sin.

You are correct. I submit that the answer to the question is yes, the second marriage is truly a marriage according to the God of the Bible. Do you see any reason to assume otherwise? Please also address the other issues I raised with regard to this topic.

[myth-one.com]

I submit that the answer to the question is yes, the second marriage is truly a marriage according to the God of the Bible. Do you see any reason to assume otherwise? Please also address the other issues I raised with regard to this topic.

To my knowledge, there is no explicit "thou shalt not commit polygamy" command in the scriptures. There is regarding adultery:

Thou shalt not commit adultery.

Now look at what Jesus said about divorce:

2And the Pharisees came to him, and asked him, Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife? tempting him.

3And he answered and said unto them, What did Moses command you?

4And they said, Moses suffered to write a bill of divorcement, and to put her away.

5And Jesus answered and said unto them, For the hardness of your heart he wrote you this precept.

6 But from the beginning of the creation God made them male and female.

7 For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and cleave to his wife;

8 And they twain shall be one flesh: so then they are no more twain, but one flesh.

9 What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.

10 And in the house his disciples asked him again of the same matter.

11 And he saith unto them, Whosoever shall put away his wife, and marry another, committeth adultery against her.

12 And if a woman shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery.

Basically, this states that God does not recognize divorce: "What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder." (Don't kill the messenger -- I've been divorced too).

If a man divorces his first wife and marries another, he commits adultery with that second wife according to Jesus.

So if a man marries once, gets "divorced," and marries again, he is a polygamist in God's eye -- as God does not recognize divorce.

But he is also committing the sin of adultery. Therefore, polygamy is equivalent to adultery -- and is thus a sin.

Perhaps there is no explicit command against polygamy because it is covered by the law against adultery.

[McCulloch]

To my knowledge, there is no explicit "thou shalt not commit polygamy" command in the scriptures.

We agree.

There is regarding adultery:

Thou shalt not commit adultery.

In short, God does not want you to be having sex with someone that you're not married to.

Now look at what Jesus said about divorce:

[..]And he saith unto them, Whosoever shall put away his wife, and marry another, committeth adultery against her. And if a woman shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery.

Basically, this states that God does not recognize divorce: "What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder." (Don't kill the messenger -- I've been divorced too).

Speak for yourself. I've been married to my first wife for twenty-seven years and counting.

If a man divorces his first wife and marries another, he commits adultery with that second wife according to Jesus.

OK. Are you remarried? Are you an adulterer?

So if a man marries once, gets "divorced," and marries again, he is a polygamist in God's eye -- as God does not recognize divorce.

No. If a man gets married once, gets divorced and marries again, he is an adulterer. His second marriage is not recognized due to the fact that he has neglected the covenant with his first wife in order to join with the second.

But he is also committing the sin of adultery. Therefore, polygamy is equivalent to adultery -- and is thus a sin.

No. Polygamy is having more than one wife. Adultery is having sex with someone not your wife. They are different things. The second marriage is not a valid marriage if you neglected your duty to the first wife in order to marry again.

Perhaps there is no explicit command against polygamy because it is covered by the law against adultery.

According to one interpretation which equates polygamy with adultery and which cannot consistently explain Jacob's faithfulness in God's eyes.

[myth-one.com]

To my knowledge, there is no explicit "thou shalt not commit polygamy" command in the scriptures.

We agree.

Yes, we agree that there are no explicit commands against polygamy to my knowledge.

Thou shalt not commit adultery.

In short, God does not want you to be having sex with someone that you're not married to.

Your definition of adultery is not universal:

Adultery (noun): Voluntary sexual intercourse between a married person and a partner other than the lawful spouse.

"The lawful spouse" is singular. I believe polygamy is against the law in my state; so there is no additional "lawful spouse" after the first. Many verses in the Bible state the same principle when they use the word "wife" singular. You claim that "wife" could be one of a group of wives, and I agreed that could be possible.

(Don't kill the messenger -- I've been divorced too).

Speak for yourself. I've been married to my first wife for twenty-seven years and counting.

That was meant for anyone who might read this -- not just you and me.

If a man divorces his first wife and marries another, he commits adultery with that second wife according to Jesus.

OK. Are you remarried?

Yes -- best thing that ever happened to me. Thank God for her.

Are you an adulterer?

I was.

Polygamy is having more than one wife. Adultery is having sex with someone not your wife. They are different things.

But by many definitions, adultery is having voluntary sex with someone other than your lawful spouse. In some parts of the world polygamy includes adultery, and in other parts it does not legally.

[center]<====================== Recap ===========================>[/center]
There are numerous verses in the Bible stating man should do, or not do, such and such with his wife (singular). I quoted only one from Mark chapter 10. You countered that these verses could mean one wife from the man's many wives. I agreed that was your interpretation and that it could be read that way.

However, you have never sufficiently explained Mark 10:6-7:

6 But from the beginning of the creation God made them male and female.

7 For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and cleave to his wife;

God set the example in the creation when He created one man with one woman. If God intended polygamy, He would have created man and at least two women! Man is to leave his father and mother and make a new start with one woman because that is how God set the example originally.

How do you explain Mark 10:6-7 differently?

Animals were taken two by two into Noah's ark -- not one male by numerous females. Two by two is sufficient for a new beginning!