The Biblical position on Polygamy

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McCulloch
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The Biblical position on Polygamy

Post #1

Post by McCulloch »

cholland wrote:Polygamy is prohibited in the Bible and the examples of it occurring prove to end in family dysfunction.
Aside from instructions specifically for elders (bishops) and deacons, is polygamy expressly prohibited in the Bible?
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Post #31

Post by FinalEnigma »

God set the example in the creation when He created one man with one woman. If God intended polygamy, He would have created man and at least two women! Man is to leave his father and mother and make a new start with one woman because that is how God set the example originally.

How do you explain Mark 10:6-7 differently?

Animals were taken two by two into Noah's ark -- not one male by numerous females. Two by two is sufficient for a new beginning!
You just defeated your own argument.

animals were taken into the ark two by two, because that was sufficient for a beginning. That doesn't mean that god intended animals to marry or to be monogamous(because many aren't), and what about the lesbian whip-tail lizards? two of them too, but they reproduce a-sexually.
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Post #32

Post by McCulloch »

myth-one.com wrote:Your definition of adultery is not universal:
http://education.yahoo.com/reference/dictionary/entry/adultery wrote:Adultery (noun): Voluntary sexual intercourse between a married person and a partner other than the lawful spouse.
"The lawful spouse" is singular. I believe polygamy is against the law in my state; so there is no additional "lawful spouse" after the first. Many verses in the Bible state the same principle when they use the word "wife" singular. You claim that "wife" could be one of a group of wives, and I agreed that could be possible.
In a jurisdiction where polygamy is outlawed, lawful spouse, by definition excludes the second concurrent wife. In a jurisdiction where miscegenation is outlawed, lawful spouse excludes a spouse of a different race. I really don't see how local laws and traditions affect the question of what is Biblically allowed.
myth-one.com wrote:If a man divorces his first wife and marries another, he commits adultery with that second wife according to Jesus.
McCulloch wrote:OK. Are you remarried?
myth-one.com wrote:Yes -- best thing that ever happened to me. Thank God for her.
I am now confused. You thank God for the woman with whom you have broken your covenant before God with your lawful wife and with whom you actively disobey God's wishes?
myth-one.com wrote:However, you have never sufficiently explained Mark 10:6-7:
Mark 10:6-7 wrote:But from the beginning of the creation God made them male and female. For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and cleave to his wife;
I thought that I had. God made humans male and female. When a boy becomes a man, he can take a wife, leave his father and mother and establish his own home with his wife.
myth-one.com wrote:God set the example in the creation when He created one man with one woman. If God intended polygamy, He would have created man and at least two women!
Again, you have not answered the difference between what is the intended norm and what is explicitly disallowed.
myth-one.com wrote:Animals were taken two by two into Noah's ark -- not one male by numerous females. Two by two is sufficient for a new beginning!
Apparently this is only true for unclean animals. For clean animals you need seven pairs.
Genesis 7:2 wrote:You shall take with you of every clean animal by sevens, a male and his female; and of the animals that are not clean two, a male and his female;
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Post #33

Post by cholland »

McCulloch wrote:
myth-one.com wrote:If a man divorces his first wife and marries another, he commits adultery with that second wife according to Jesus.
McCulloch wrote:OK. Are you remarried?
myth-one.com wrote:Yes -- best thing that ever happened to me. Thank God for her.
I am now confused. You thank God for the woman with whom you have broken your covenant before God with your lawful wife and with whom you actively disobey God's wishes?
I've pretty much stayed out of this since I'm not well versed in why God allowed polygamy in the OT, but I kind of want to hear this response. As far as Christians, I can understand justification for divorce (though don't agree with it), but never understood remarriage. Maybe should be a separate thread.

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Post #34

Post by myth-one.com »

McCulloch wrote:I am now confused. You thank God for the woman with whom you have broken your covenant before God with your lawful wife and with whom you actively disobey God's wishes?
No, I can't even remember her name. I thank God for my second wife! Neither of us were married when we began dating many, many, wonderful years ago.
myth-one.com wrote:However, you have never sufficiently explained Mark 10:6-7:
Mark 10:6-7 wrote:But from the beginning of the creation God made them male and female. For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and cleave to his wife;
McCulloch wrote:I thought that I had. God made humans male and female. When a boy becomes a man, he can take a wife, leave his father and mother and establish his own home with his wife.
But that is how I explain the verse. That any one man is supposed to take only one wife. Aren't we having this discussion because you believe it should read "he can take wives" when he becomes a man?

If not, accept my appology for the misunderstanding. You probably did explain that before.
myth-one.com wrote:God set the example in the creation when He created one man with one woman. If God intended polygamy, He would have created man and at least two women!
McCulloch wrote:Again, you have not answered the difference between what is the intended norm and what is explicitly disallowed.
Ok, perhaps "intended norm" is the one wife we both accept as allowed above. I probably give it more emphasis because I'm a Christian and believe it to be the word of God. Nuff said.

So, would the word "a wife" become more explicit if the second wife broke God's commandment against adultery? This is kinda where we were a few postings back. That is, I cannot find an explicit warning of not to practice polygamy. But if polygamy automatically breaks the command not to commit adultery, then polygamy would essentually be explicitly denied -- to me anyway. The Bible commands mankind not to murder. It doesn't have to say do not murder by shooting, and stabbing, and neglect, and strangling, etc.
myth-one.com wrote:Animals were taken two by two into Noah's ark -- not one male by numerous females. Two by two is sufficient for a new beginning!
McCulloch wrote:Apparently this is only true for unclean animals. For clean animals you need seven pairs.
Genesis 7:2 wrote:You shall take with you of every clean animal by sevens, a male and his female; and of the animals that are not clean two, a male and his female;
Yes, and all were taken as pairs, male and female.
Genesis 8:20 wrote:And Noah builded an altar unto the LORD; and took of every clean beast, and of every clean fowl, and offered burnt offerings on the altar.
Clean animals were used for sacrifice when the ark landed and perhaps as food during the 150 days afloat. Of course, they could not have sacrificed some of every clean animal to God if only two of each had been taken. You do not need seven pairs if the only reason for them being aboard was their survival. For that purpose, only two of each were needed -- male and female. Exactly as man was created.

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Post #35

Post by myth-one.com »

Cholland wrote:I've pretty much stayed out of this since I'm not well versed in why God allowed polygamy in the OT, but I kind of want to hear this response.
Much polygamy may have occurred before the commandment was given to forbid it. That commandment may have been the commandment against adultery. Being well versed is not a requirement -- don't let that keep you away. Here am I as proof.
Cholland wrote:As far as Christians, I can understand justification for divorce (though don't agree with it), but never understood remarriage. Maybe should be a separate thread.
Perhaps a new thread, but quickly, do you mean any remarriage, or those who get divorced so as to marry another? The reason I ask is that God created woman because man was alone. If one loses a spouse through an untimely death, the remaining spouse man very well experience loneliness again. Perhaps God might bring two such people together with marriage in mind!

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Post #36

Post by cholland »

myth-one.com wrote:Perhaps a new thread, but quickly, do you mean any remarriage, or those who get divorced so as to marry another? The reason I ask is that God created woman because man was alone. If one loses a spouse through an untimely death, the remaining spouse man very well experience loneliness again. Perhaps God might bring two such people together with marriage in mind!
Agreed. I think death is grounds for remarriage. I'm sorry I didn't think of that and I probably brought up something you may not want to talk about. I apologize for being inconsiderate.

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Post #37

Post by McCulloch »

myth-one.com wrote:That any one man is supposed to take only one wife. Aren't we having this discussion because you believe it should read "he can take wives" when he becomes a man?
No, not at all. He takes a wife (Leah). That does not preclude taking a second wife (Rachel) at a later date.
myth-one.com wrote:I probably give it more emphasis because I'm a Christian and believe it to be the word of God. Nuff said.
Is that in the Bible or did God tell you directly?
myth-one.com wrote:But if polygamy automatically breaks the command not to commit adultery, then polygamy would essentually be explicitly denied -- to me anyway.
But polygamy does not imply adultery. Divorcing a wife in order to marry another implies adultery. You are reading more into the passage than what is there.
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Post #38

Post by myth-one.com »

myth-one.com wrote:That any one man is supposed to take only one wife. Aren't we having this discussion because you believe it should read "he can take wives" when he becomes a man?
McCulloch wrote:No, not at all. He takes a wife (Leah). That does not preclude taking a second wife (Rachel) at a later date.
So he can take an infinite number of women to be his wife as long as it is one at a time. But at no time will he have "wives." Ok, I got it (fingers crossed). :lol:
myth-one.com wrote:I probably give it more emphasis because I'm a Christian and believe it to be the word of God. Nuff said.
McCulloch wrote:Is that in the Bible or did God tell you directly?
The part of being the word of god?
All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: (II Timothy 3:16)
myth-one.com wrote:But if polygamy automatically breaks the command not to commit adultery, then polygamy would essentually be explicitly denied -- to me anyway.
McCulloch wrote:But polygamy does not imply adultery.
That depends on the definition of adultery chosen:
http://education.yahoo.com/reference/dictionary/entry/adultery wrote:Adultery (noun): Voluntary sexual intercourse between a married person and a partner other than the lawful spouse.
If polygamy is unlawful, then polygamy implies adultery as one is lawfully married to only the 1st wife -- not the other women.
McCulloch wrote:Divorcing a wife in order to marry another implies adultery.
Not according to man's definition, because after a legal divorce, that person is no longer married.
McCulloch wrote:You are reading more into the passage than what is there.
That's your opinion. Repetition does not convince me that your statement is true.
Mark 10:6-7 wrote:But from the beginning of the creation God made them male and female. For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and cleave to his wife;
According to the Bible:

1 - God created mankind originally as one man and one woman -- and saw that it was good.

2 - Therefore ("for this cause"), man is to leave his father & mother and cleave to his wife (singular).

There, I repeated it again. Are you any closer to agreeing with my viewpoint? Probably not.
Cholland wrote:Agreed. I think death is grounds for remarriage. I'm sorry I didn't think of that and I probably brought up something you may not want to talk about. I apologize for being inconsiderate.
I, and probably others here, can talk about most anything. Cholland, I haven't noticed that you have ever been inconsiderate in any thread!

Perhaps myself and the other "debaters" are setting the courtesy standard too high! :lol: :lol: Now that's funny! Double laughing out loud again. :lol: :lol: Lighten up! :lol: :lol: Oops! I may have wet myself . . . Gotta go. :lol: :lol:

:lol: :lol:

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Post #39

Post by McCulloch »

myth-one.com wrote:That any one man is supposed to take only one wife. Aren't we having this discussion because you believe it should read "he can take wives" when he becomes a man?
McCulloch wrote:No, not at all. He takes a wife (Leah). That does not preclude taking a second wife (Rachel) at a later date.
myth-one.com wrote:So he can take an infinite number of women to be his wife as long as it is one at a time. But at no time will he have "wives." Ok, I got it (fingers crossed). :lol:
You are familiar with God's faithful servant, Jacob and his two wives aren't you? A man leaves his mother and father and takes a wife. There is nothing in that passage or any other passage of scripture that precludes him from taking another wife, so long as in doing so he remains faithful to his first wife, while she is still living.
myth-one.com wrote:I probably give it more emphasis because I'm a Christian and believe it to be the word of God. Nuff said.
McCulloch wrote:Is that in the Bible or did God tell you directly?
You still have not shown that what you say is taught, directly or indirectly in the Bible.
myth-one.com wrote:If polygamy is unlawful, then polygamy implies adultery as one is lawfully married to only the 1st wife -- not the other women.
If you live in a jurisdiction where polygamy is unlawful, then it is not allowed and subsequent marriages would be unlawful, not because it is forbidden by the God of the Bible, but because it is forbidden by civil law.
McCulloch wrote:Divorcing a wife in order to marry another implies adultery.
myth-one.com wrote:Not according to man's definition, because after a legal divorce, that person is no longer married.
The point that Jesus is making is that such a divorce is not recognized by God, even though it is recognized by civil law. Without proper cause for divorce, you are still married according to God's Son.
myth-one.com wrote:
Mark 10:6-7 wrote:But from the beginning of the creation God made them male and female. For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and cleave to his wife;
According to the Bible:

1 - God created mankind originally as one man and one woman -- and saw that it was good.
Yes.
myth-one.com wrote:2 - Therefore ("for this cause"), man is to leave his father & mother and cleave to his wife (singular).
As Jacob did. He later took a second wife, while still cleaving to his first.
myth-one.com wrote:There, I repeated it again. Are you any closer to agreeing with my viewpoint? Probably not.
Repetition does not convince me that your statement is true.
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The truth will make you free.
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Post #40

Post by myth-one.com »

McCulloch wrote:You are familiar with God's faithful servant, Jacob and his two wives aren't you? A man leaves his mother and father and takes a wife. There is nothing in that passage or any other passage of scripture that precludes him from taking another wife, so long as in doing so he remains faithful to his first wife, while she is still living.
Maybe I do not understand "faithful." Could Jacob believe in a second "God" as long as he remained "faithful" to God? How did Jacob remain faithful to one wife while fulfilling the duties of a husband to a second wife? Aren't there some things which are sacred to a marriage? I know there are in marriage vows of today -- granted they were probably different in Jacob's time.
myth-one.com wrote:There, I repeated it again. Are you any closer to agreeing with my viewpoint? Probably not.
McCulloch wrote:Repetition does not convince me that your statement is true.
Yes!! I got that one right. :) I think.

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