McCulloch wrote:
Matthew 19:3-12 wrote:[font=Georgia]
Some Pharisees came to Jesus, testing Him and asking, Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife for any reason at all? And He answered and said, Have you not read that He who created them from the beginning made them male and female, and said, For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh? So they are no longer two, but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let no man separate. They said to Him, Why then did Moses command to give her a certificate of divorce and send her away? He said to them, Because of your hardness of heart Moses permitted you to divorce your wives; but from the beginning it has not been this way. And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery.
The disciples said to Him, If the relationship of the man with his wife is like this, it is better not to marry. But He said to them, Not all men can accept this statement, but only those to whom it has been given. For there are eunuchs who were born that way from their mothers womb; and there are eunuchs who were made eunuchs by men; and there are also eunuchs who made themselves eunuchs for the sake of the kingdom of heaven. He who is able to accept this, let him accept it.
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What does the word
adultery mean? Adultery is when a married person has sex with someone who is not his or her spouse. Thus, the only way that remarriage after divorce could be called adultery would be if one or more of the couple being married were still actually married to their former partner. Here Jesus clearly teaches that unless the divorce was granted for immorality ([font=Times New Roman]
[/font]porneia meaning fornication or sexual immorality) then the marriage is still valid and any remarriage is adultery.
As several other posters have already pointed out, it is by no means certain that the canonical gospels contain the actual, verbatim words/teachings of the person [itinerant cynic sage?] known as Jesus.
Take for example your quotation from Matthew. Did Jesus actually say [Mt 19:9 NSRV] A: And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for unchastity, and marries another [strike]woman[/strike] commits adultery?
Or, rather, did Jesus say B: And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for unchastity,
makes her commit adultery, and marries another commits adultery?
Or did he say, C: And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for unchastity, and marries another commits adultery
and he who marries a divorced woman commits adultery
All three versions are to be found in extant ancient manuscripts.
Mark includes a similar story [10:11-12] but in his version Jesus says Whoever divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery against her; and if she divorces her husband and marries another, she commits adultery.
Luke also includes a teaching [16:18] Anyone who divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery, and whoever marries a woman divorced from her husband commits adultery.
All three synoptic gospels therefore include sayings/teachings that have similarities but equally each version contains differences so that no two accounts are identical.
Given the absolute prohibition against adultery, Lukes Jesus comes across as the most strict; He does not permit a divorced man to remarry under any circumstances. Women apparently do not have the right to divorce; a divorced woman cannot remarry.
Marks Jesus envisages women having the same rights to divorce as men. However, just as with Luke, the prohibition against either divorced partner remarrying is absolute.
Matthews Jesus is much more lax regarding men; in opposition to the other two Synoptic gospels, Jesus introduces the unchastity get out clause for men. All three versions of Matthew permit a man to divorce and remarry if his wife has been unfaithful. Version A is silent on the marital prospects for divorced women, however, under Jewish law, if a woman was divorced for adultery the penalty was death. In version B the women is automatically considered to be an adulteress irrespective of the reasons for the divorce [and therefore the death penalty would follow?] and in version C, in common with Lukes Jesus, the prohibition against marrying a divorced woman is absolute.
Which version, if any, therefore should we assume to be the authentic words/teachings of Jesus?