Jehovah's Witnesses: Worship Jesus! (2 Timothy 4:18)

Faber · Post by **Faber** » Thu Jun 08, 2017 9:15 pm

2 Timothy 4:18
The Lord will rescue me from every evil deed, and will bring me safely to His heavenly kingdom; to Him be the glory forever and ever. Amen. (NASB)

Galatians 1:3-5
(3) Grace to you and peace from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ,
(4) who gave Himself for our sins so that He might rescue us from this present evil age, according to the will of our God and Father,
(5) to whom be the glory forevermore. Amen. (NASB)

A. The Jehovah's Witnesses teach that the "Lord" in 2 Timothy 4:18 refers to the Lord Jesus.
Insight on the Scriptures: No one took his side in his first defense; nevertheless, Paul was strengthened by the Lord Jesus Christ; he is confident that the Lord will save him for His heavenly Kingdom (4:16-18) (Volume 2, Timothy, Letters to) (See the very last paragraph)
https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1200004417

B. The Jehovah's Witnesses teach that the "Lord" refers to Jehovah (and Jesus?)
The Watchtower: Recalling that experience must have strengthened Paul, helping him to trust that Jehovah would fortify him to endure his present trials and any future difficulties that might arise. In fact, he immediately went on to say: The Lord will rescue me from every wicked work. (2 Tim. 4:18) Yes, Paul had learned that even when human assistance is limited, the help that Jehovah and his Son provide is real! (Always Trust in Jehovah!, April 15, 2015)
https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/2015286

Three questions:
1. Since according to the first citation the "Lord" refers to the Lord Jesus to whom does the same singular "Lord" refer to in the second citation?

2. Since the "Lord" refers to the Lord Jesus why do the Jehovah's Witnesses forbid worshiping the Lord Jesus when 2 Timothy 4:18 is a doxology?
https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/2015286

3. Isn't Galatians 1:5 a doxology in which the Father is being worshiped?

Faber · Post by **Faber** » Fri Jun 09, 2017 7:59 am

He does not specify any passages.

Why is it that multiple lexicons disagree with you concerning what "Amen" means at the end of Galatians 1:5?

2timothy316 · Post by **2timothy316** » Fri Jun 09, 2017 8:26 am

Faber wrote: He does not specify any passages.

What does this mean? There is no 'specifying passages' needed. The word is used in both scriptures you cited. They mean the same thing.

Are you trying to do some sort of personal interpretation of the word? Are you saying that what amen means to you? I don't understand why what isn't specified matters because I can find no concordance that says different. If a book tries specify what passages mean, then it is not a unbiased concordance, it's a work of opinion. I on the other hand am simply pointing to what all concordances say what amen means in Greek and Hebrew.

Faber · Post by **Faber** » Fri Jun 09, 2017 8:30 am

The BDAG (3rd Editon) and many others will take a Greek word used and define it with the various meanings for the word and cite the passages where they belong for each specific definition. Strong's doesn't do that to the degree everyone else that I know of does.

2timothy316 · Post by **2timothy316** » Fri Jun 09, 2017 9:31 am

Faber wrote: The BDAG (3rd Editon) and many others will take a Greek word used and define it with the various meanings for the word and cite the passages where they belong for each specific definition. Strong's doesn't do that to the degree everyone else that I know of does.

They can give whatever meanings they want it doesn't change the fact that the Greek word for amen is the same in both scriptures.

Please, though give the link to 'everyone else'. These lexicons use Strong's Concordance anyway. So anything extra is pure opinion and not fact.

Here's the NAS lexicon.
http://www.biblestudytools.com/lexicons ... /amen.html
Here is what they note.

verily, amen

at the beginning of a discourse - surely, truly, of a truth
at the end - so it is, so be it, may it be fulfilled. It was a custom, which passed over from the synagogues to the Christian assemblies, that when he who had read or discoursed, had offered up solemn prayer to God, the others responded Amen, and thus made the substance of what was uttered their own.

The word "amen" is a most remarkable word. It was transliterateddirectly from the Hebrew into the Greek of the New Testament, theninto Latin and into English and many other languages, so that it ispractically a universal word. It has been called the best known wordin human speech. The word is directly related -- in fact, almostidentical -- to the Hebrew word for "believe" (amam), or faithful.Thus, it came to mean "sure" or "truly", an expression of absolutetrust and confidence. -- HMM

There is no note that it is only used for worship. Can you guess what reference scriptures they used? The same scriptures you did. Everything I read it says that an amen at the end of a written paragraph is to note emphasis on what was just written or said. That is why it was use at the end of prayers as well but it's not used exclusively for prayers. 2 Timothy 4:18 is not a prayer. It's a word used to emphasize a statement. This is the case of 2 Tim 4:18 "To him be the glory forever and ever." Interestingly the same words are used in Gal 1:5 "to whom be the glory forever and ever." It's like adding an exclamation point in the format of a word with the tone of 'so be it'.