"TIMITS" Revisited: Is it correct to describe the

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"TIMITS" Revisited: Is it correct to describe the

Post #1

Post by Jagella »

Due to popular demand, I've decided to again tackle the subject of what may or may not be an accurate description of the Bible god. I think it's safe to say that most Christians would reject or at least not affirm that the god they believe in can be accurately described as "The Invisible Man In The Sky." They probably feel that "TIMITS" is not a name that most people can respect because it makes the Bible god appear to be mythological or even the product a a child's imagination.

While I think the name TIMITS fits well, another member here disagrees.
tam wrote: Invisible

Might have a problem here. Just because something is unseen does not mean that it is invisible. My brother lives on the other side of the country; I cannot see him, but he is not invisible.

God dwells in the spiritual realm (in unapproachable light). We may not currently see Him; but that does not mean He is invisible; nor does it mean that other spirit beings cannot see Him. As well, what would be the point of God saying, 'No one can see me and live'... if He was invisible, if no one could see Him, ever? Would He not have said instead, "No one can see me because I am invisible"?

"No one can see me and live" implies rather than that He is too powerful a being for us to physically (stand in His presence and) see Him. At least not in this vessel (the body that we currently inhabit).

Peace again to you,
your servant and a slave of Christ,
tammy
This argument is very easy to disprove. The Bible god is indeed invisible. Just read Colossians 1:15:
He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation.
Question for Debate: Would anybody else like to affirm or deny that the Bible god is The Invisible Man In The Sky?

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Re: "TIMITS" Revisited: Is it correct to describe

Post #21

Post by tam »

Peace to you Jagella,
Jagella wrote:
tam wrote:Man

Problem here as well.

God is not a man (numbers 23:19; 1Samuel 15:29)
At that time the writers of those passages were denying the beliefs that probably arose among some of the Jews that their god was a man.


First...

Probably?

At the time, the writers of those passages were denying the idea that God might change His mind (or lie)... as men do. God is not a man that He would do these things. This has nothing to do with your personal idea that some 'heretic' Jews might have believed God was a mere man.

Second...


Are you using 'man' in your title based on (your idea of) what might 'probably' have been a heretical belief that prophets rebuked as being untrue? How does that make sense? How does it make sense to take a heretical idea that was rebuked as being untrue... and turn around and tell people today that this heretical belief is what they must believe? That this accurately describes their God?

Third...

Those quotes state explicitly that God is not a man. Didn't you and DI go on about how 'believers' toss out what they don't agree with? How are you not doing that very thing right now?

Fourth...

I listed additional support that speaks against God being a man in post 14.



Peace again to you,
your servant and a slave of Christ,
tammy

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Re: "TIMITS" Revisited: Is it correct to describe

Post #22

Post by tam »

Jagella wrote:
tam wrote:
It was not really an argument to prove or disprove. I realize that Paul describes God as 'invisible'... but meaning unseen.
The Greek word is ἀο�άτου. It can mean either unseen or invisible. I thought that these two words can be synonyms.

Anyway, if God is visible, then what does he look like? When did you last see him? I was taught by Christians that the Bible god was present but unseen which makes him invisible.

I am not really sure why you stopped quoting me with just that little bit, since there was more to my point:

So if by invisible you mean unseen, then there may be no problem (as I said). God is unseen by us; but that does not mean that no one has ever seen Him or that no one will ever be able to see Him.

"No one has seen the Father except the one who is from God; only he has seen the Father." John 6:46


The Son has Himself seen the Father.

**

Even John in Revelation saw God seated on the throne (albeit while John was in the spirit), though I am not sure John describes much about His appearance.



Peace again to you,
your servant and a slave of Christ,
tammy

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Re: "TIMITS" Revisited: Is it correct to describe

Post #23

Post by Divine Insight »

JehovahsWitness wrote: [Replying to post 17 by Divine Insight]
JehovahsWitness wrote: # While the Hebrew word translated as the English "heaven" covers what we call the "sky" ie the atmopher surrounding the earth were birds fly) the same word also, and more frequently refer to the spirit realm. It is arguably this meaning that is exclusively used when speaking of God's literal location.
What exactly do you see as problematic in my explanation?
To begin with this isn't "your" explanation. Clearly this is the explanation that has been given to you by the Jehovah's Witnesses organization.

The reason that their explanation fails is because talking about how Hebrew words might have been translated into English doesn't explain the context of the Biblical texts. The Gospels have the disciples of Jesus watch his physical body ascend up into the clouds. This can hardly be explained away via an argument of semantic abstraction.

So I would ask why you are buying into these excuses being published by JW.org?

They are clearly not valid apologies.

As I also pointed out, they try to make out that Jesus didn't even physically rise from the dead. Instead they try to claim that Jesus "spiritually" rose from the dead. But this ignores the claims of an empty tomb. Why would you need a missing physical body if Jesus only returned as a spirit?

Also, when the doubting Thomas saw Jesus he couldn't believe it was Jesus until he saw Jesus' physical wounds. And the Gospels have Jesus himself instructing Thomas to stick a finger into his wounds himself to verify that it was indeed him, and that he did indeed still have a physical body.

So the idea that Jesus only returned as a spirit is not compatible with the empty grave Gospels, as well as the episode with the doubting Thomas.

I also gave the example of the demons that asked Jesus to cast them into swine. So the apology that "casting demons" out of people is just a metaphor to get them to have a change of heart, change of mind, or change of character simply isn't compatible with these stories.

I'm quite familiar with what JW's are taught to believe. They come to my house quite regularly and I've spoken with them in-depth over the years as well as having read what the JW organization prints in its Watchtower.

Their apologies for this religion simply don't hold water.

The Gospels cannot be made to make sense by proclaiming that they were nothing more than metaphors and any literal interpretations are simply wrong and must be due to people having translated words incorrectly..

That argument simply has no merit. So, to be quite frank about it, I'm surprised that you accept these clearly flawed excuses without questioning them thoroughly.

Finally, let's assume that the JW apologies could hold water. What would that mean? Well, that would mean that God's message has been grossly mistranslated and misunderstood by millions of people and published Bibles.

Even if we were to accept that this was the case, all this would mean is that we cannot trust the written Bible to mean what it says or say what it means.

And if that's true, then my argument that the Bible cannot be true "as it is written" would then necessarily be an argument that the Jehovah's Witness organization would have no choice but to agree with.

In other words, JW.org would need to agree with me that the Bible indeed cannot be trusted to represent truth "as it is written".

In fact, isn't that the gist of the argument they have given you to repeat for them?

It's all been mistranslated! English Bibles are indeed false and untrue in what they actually say.

And if that's true, then if there is a God behind this religion that God has no business judging anyone who rejects the Bible as clearly being utter nonsense.

It would ultimately be a God who himself cannot be trusted.

Is that really the kind of apologetics that you want to support? Because that's exactly what you are doing when you support JW.org.

English Bibles have it all wrong! That's the JW apologetic argument!

And Divine Insight has been right all along. English Bibles cannot be true "as they are written".

This has to be the position of the Jehovah's Witnesses organization if they want to maintain that English Bible are not true "as they are written".

Because remember. That is my position. O:)

So "your apologies" (or at least the apologies you support) for this religion actually support my position.

So if the JW's are right, then so am I. 8-)
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Re: "TIMITS" Revisited: Is it correct to describe

Post #24

Post by JehovahsWitness »

Divine Insight wrote:
JehovahsWitness wrote: [Replying to post 17 by Divine Insight]
JehovahsWitness wrote: # While the Hebrew word translated as the English "heaven" covers what we call the "sky" ie the atmopher surrounding the earth were birds fly) the same word also, and more frequently refer to the spirit realm. It is arguably this meaning that is exclusively used when speaking of God's literal location.
What exactly do you see as problematic in my explanation?

The reason that their explanation fails is because talking about how Hebrew words might have been translated into English doesn't explain the context of the Biblical texts. The Gospels have the disciples of Jesus watch his physical body ascend up into the clouds.
Emphasis MINE


What in the post I put up negates Jesus ascending into the clouds in a physical body?



RELATED POSTS

What does the bible mean when it uses the word "heaven(s)"?
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 228#841228

The Ascension: Is heaven really "up"?
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 907#818907

Was Jesus resurrected in a physical body?
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 616#753616
INDEX: More bible based ANSWERS
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681


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Re: "TIMITS" Revisited: Is it correct to describe

Post #25

Post by Divine Insight »

JehovahsWitness wrote: What in the post I put up negates Jesus ascending into the clouds in a physical body?

The following:
JehovahsWitness wrote: # While the Hebrew word translated as the English "heaven" covers what we call the "sky" ie the atmopher surrounding the earth were birds fly) the same word also, and more frequently refer to the spirit realm. It is arguably this meaning that is exclusively used when speaking of God's literal location.
But it's not "arguable" that a mere word translation could be used as a credible apology that the Gospels weren't literally speaking about Jesus ascending into the "sky" and the "clouds".

You would need to totally reject the entire context of what the story is describing.

Acts 1:9 And when he had spoken these things, while they beheld, he was taken up; and a cloud received him out of their sight.

This is clearly not a description of a spirit realm. Moreover the word "heaven" isn't even used in this description.

This is clearly a description of the physical body of Jesus being raised "up" into the "sky" and disappearing into a "cloud".

I mean if you're going to be arguing against TIMITS, this argument fails miserably.

It fails, not only because it clearly describes a physical body ascending into the actual sky. But it clearly also fails miserably in any argument that this is supposedly to merely be a metaphor for a non-physical spiritual realm.

The mere fact that these stories have Jesus taking his physical body with him into a supposedly spiritual realm already destroys this entire mythology.

I have always found the idea that Jesus took his physical body back with him to a non-physical spiritual realm to be an extreme oxymoron. This is one of the errors in these ancient superstitions that clearly give them away as being nothing more than very poorly thought-out man-made rumors.

~~~~~~~

I mean, this is only one of an endless list of contradictory claims made by this theological mythology.

The very idea of a God who drowns out sinning humans at one point in these myths and then makes a complete about-face and decides later to have himself (or his demigod Son) brutally crucified on a pole as his way of offering humans undeserved amnesty for being sinners is already so dramatically self-contradictory to the idea of a God who's character never changes.

Exactly how much proof do you need to realize that these ancient myths simply cannot be true no matter how many absurd apologies people are willing to keep making for them?

Surely you can see that in order to believe in the Bible you actually need to believe in a far larger book of endless apologies for why the Bible supposedly makes sense when, in fact, it clearly doesn't.

I don't think any other religion that mankind has ever invented has required more utterly absurd apologies than Christianity. Even Islam doesn't require such absurd apologies (although it certainly runs a close second to Christianity).

But think about it, at least in Islam there is no contradiction about a God who so hates the world that he drowns out humans, only to turn back around and so love the world that he has himself nailed to a pole to offer humans undeserved forgiveness.

Christianity alone holds the record for the most self-contradictory theology ever invented. And ironically they seem to actually be proud of this. Some Christian theists have ever argued that the absolute utter absurdity of Christianity is what makes them a believer. They actually argue that the religion is so obviously insane that this somehow means that it must be true. :roll:

That's no joke either.

That's supposed to be considered to be one of their "sound" apologies. Christianity is so utterly absurd and insane that it simply must be true, because no humans could create such an utterly absurd mythology.

Don't bet on it. :D

But at least we can see how theists think.

And I certainly agree, if we're going to believe in the most absurd religion possible, Christianity would indeed be the best choice. No doubt about that. O:)
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Re: "TIMITS" Revisited: Is it correct to describe

Post #26

Post by JehovahsWitness »

Divine Insight wrote:
JehovahsWitness wrote: What in the post I put up negates Jesus ascending into the clouds in a physical body?

The following:
JehovahsWitness wrote: # While the Hebrew word translated as the English "heaven" covers what we call the "sky" (ie the atmosphere surrounding the earth were birds fly) the same word also, and more frequently refer to the spirit realm is arguably this meaning that is exclusively used when speaking of. God's literal location.
But it's not "arguable" that a mere word translation could be used as a credible apology that the Gospels weren't literally speaking about Jesus ascending into the "sky" and the "clouds".
Emphasis MINE

Are you suggesting that I argued that Jesus did not ascend into the sky and the clouds in a physical body?
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Re: "TIMITS" Revisited: Is it correct to describe

Post #27

Post by Divine Insight »

JehovahsWitness wrote: Are you suggesting that I argued that Jesus did not ascend into the sky and the clouds in a physical body?
No. I was responding to your claim that the term "heaven" doesn't necessarily refer to the "sky". That was your original apology remember? :-k

So let me emphasize what I had previously said:

"Moreover the word "heaven" isn't even used in this description."
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Re: "TIMITS" Revisited: Is it correct to describe

Post #28

Post by JehovahsWitness »

Divine Insight wrote:
JehovahsWitness wrote: Are you suggesting that I argued that Jesus did not ascend into the sky and the clouds in a physical body?
No. I was responding to your claim that the term "heaven" doesn't necessarily refer to the "sky".
Emphasis MINE

So is your position that every single occurrence of the word heaven in the bible ONLY refers to the literal sky where birds fly and it never refers to a spiritual realm where God and the angels abide invisible to humans? Is that the point you are making?


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Re: "TIMITS" Revisited: Is it correct to describe

Post #29

Post by JehovahsWitness »

Divine Insight wrote: So let me emphasize what I had previously said:

"Moreover the word "heaven" isn't even used in this description."
Did I say that the word heaven is mentioned in the description of Jesus ascension?



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Divine Insight wrote:The Bible clearly makes many references to Jesus "ascending" to heaven. It even describes Jesus' disciples actually witnessing this event when Jesus supposedly actually does ascend to heaven.
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Re: "TIMITS" Revisited: Is it correct to describe

Post #30

Post by Divine Insight »

JehovahsWitness wrote: So is your position that every single occurrence of the word heaven in the bible ONLY refers to the literal sky where birds fly and it never refers to a spiritual realm where God and the angels abide invisible to humans? Is that the point you are making?
Absolutely not. In fact, I'm not even concerned with the word heaven, or how JW's might think it might have been mistranslated or misunderstood. :roll:

That was your apology, not mine.

My position is, and has always been, that the Bible cannot be true "as it is written". And every apology I have ever heard from any JW (or any other Christian evangelist for that matter), is that they apparently agree with me 100%. :D
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