Is Christianity Just The Result Of One Man's Illness?

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Is Christianity Just The Result Of One Man's Illness?

Post #1

Post by RedEye »

We all know the story of St. Paul's conversion on the road to Damascus. Most Christians accept this story as being a true vision or encounter with a celestial Jesus. But was it? What if it was only a manifestation of a medical condition? At least one researcher in Neuropsychology thinks that this could be the case:

https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC1032067/
  • Evidence is offered to suggest a neurological origin for Paul's ecstatic visions. Paul's physical state at the time of his conversion is discussed and related to these ecstatic experiences. It is postulated that both were manifestations of temporal lobe epilepsy.
In old Ireland, epilepsy was known as "Saint Paul's disease". The name points to the centuries-old assumption that the apostle suffered from epilepsy. So Christians themselves came to this conclusion based on hints in the epistles:
  • 2 Corinthians 12
    7 Therefore, in order to keep me from becoming conceited, I was given a thorn in my flesh, a messenger of Satan, to torment me. 8 Three times I pleaded with the Lord to take it away from me. 9 But he said to me, My grace is sufficient for you, for my power is made perfect in weakness. Therefore I will boast all the more gladly about my weaknesses, so that Christs power may rest on me. 10 That is why, for Christs sake, I delight in weaknesses, in insults, in hardships, in persecutions, in difficulties. For when I am weak, then I am strong.
Paul tells us that he has some despised physical affliction but doesn't name it. This is perhaps through shame because in ancient times people used to spit at epileptics, either out of disgust or in order to ward off what they thought to be the "contagious matter" (epilepsy as 'morbus insputatus': the illness at which one spits).
  • Galatians 4
    13 As you know, it was because of an illness that I first preached the gospel to you, 14 and even though my illness was a trial to you, you did not treat me with contempt or scorn.
Again Paul tells us that he suffers from some debilitating condition. How can we conclude that this condition must be a form of epilepsy? Let's look at his conversion "vision".
  • Acts 9
    3 As he neared Damascus on his journey, suddenly a light from heaven flashed around him. 4 He fell to the ground and heard a voice say to him, Saul, Saul, why do you persecute me?
    5 Who are you, Lord? Saul asked.
    I am Jesus, whom you are persecuting, he replied. 6 Now get up and go into the city, and you will be told what you must do.
    7 The men traveling with Saul stood there speechless; they heard the sound but did not see anyone. 8 Saul got up from the ground, but when he opened his eyes he could see nothing. So they led him by the hand into Damascus. 9 For three days he was blind, and did not eat or drink anything.
This description has all the hallmarks of a temporal lobe epilepsy (TLE) episode. Paul's sudden fall, the fact that he first lay motionless on the ground but was then able to get up unaided, led people very early on to suspect that this dramatic incident might have been caused by a grand mal seizure. In more recent times, this opinion has found support from the fact that sight impediment - including temporary blindness lasting from several hours to several days - has been observed as being a symptom or result of an epileptic seizure and has been mentioned in many case reports. Having visions of a religious nature are not uncommon in TLE episodes.

Another hint that Paul suffered from epilepsy is his complete disinterest in sex. This is a common symptom. Studies suggest that over half of men with epilepsy, and a third of women with epilepsy, say they have problems with sex. The most commonly reported problems for men are a reduced interest in sex, and getting and keeping an erection.

The above is not the only vision Paul tells us about. We also have:
  • 2 Corinthians 12
    1 I must go on boasting. Although there is nothing to be gained, I will go on to visions and revelations from the Lord. 2 I know a man in Christ who fourteen years ago was caught up to the third heaven. Whether it was in the body or out of the body I do not know"God knows. 3 And I know that this man"whether in the body or apart from the body I do not know, but God knows" 4 was caught up to paradise and heard inexpressible things, things that no one is permitted to tell. 5 I will boast about a man like that, but I will not boast about myself, except about my weaknesses.
Obviously Paul is talking about himself here (but trying to be humble). The evidence is very strong that Paul's "visions" are simply the products of a brain condition that he suffered from but which was not treatable at the time. This means that what he saw was no more real than the episodes epileptics experience today before they are diagnosed and put on medication.

I don't think I need to argue that Paul kicked off what later became Christianity. He was responsible for most of the major doctrines which differentiated it from Judaism. The idea of a saviour Jesus came from him and later gospel authors fleshed Jesus out and gave him a back story. This means that without Paul we probably would not have the Christianity we know today. That begs the question. If Paul's visions were only manifestations of his lifetime brain illness, what does that say about the validity of the origins of Christianity?
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Re: Is Christianity Just The Result Of One Man's Illness?

Post #21

Post by Jagella »

tam wrote:Epileptic episodes do not have external things that other people experience. The two men with Paul heard the sound (they did not understand the words, but they did hear), and while they did not see Christ Himself, they are described as seeing a light that surrounded them all.

That is not a description of epilepsy. Nothing more should be needed than that.
While I agree that the details of this story of Paul's conversion may not be reasonably explained by Paul experiencing an epileptic fit, it's important to keep in mind that this story was not written by Paul; it was actually written by Luke. One possibility then is that Paul may have had an epileptic fit and hallucinated Christ in the sky. Later Luke added these details of the men with Paul to the story to make it seem more authentic.

My explanation is better than an orthodox-Christian explanation because we know that people hallucinate and add details to stories. We do not know that gods appear in the sky and knock people off their horses.

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Re: Is Christianity Just The Result Of One Man's Illness?

Post #22

Post by Jagella »

[Replying to post 11 by Tart]

The problem with what you're arguing is that you are trying to say that the experiences of Paul and the other early Christians are unlikely, or to put it more specifically, you argue that their experiences are unlikely to be merely the result of runaway human imagination. However, if you wish to argue what is unlikely, then I think it's safe to say that a real god really appearing in the sky and really knocking a man off his horse is far more unlikely than people sharing the same hallucinations and the same delusions.

So the sensible option here is to conclude that Paul's visions did originate in his epilepsy rather than in some magic-man in the sky.

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Re: Is Christianity Just The Result Of One Man's Illness?

Post #23

Post by RedEye »

Tart wrote: What evidence do you accept from Paul? What books he wrote?
Paul didn't write any books. He wrote some letters (epistles). I accept the seven authentic ones (not all in the NT are authentic Paul) even though they too have a few later interpolations in them.
Do you think he knew others that believed they met the risen Christ?
No, because to Paul Jesus was a celestial figure only. (See Marcionism).
Do you believe Peter, James, John existed?
Yes, but they were not disciples of a human Jesus.
Or any others within the Gospels, Acts, and the Epistles??
See above. Parts of Acts. Almost all of the central characters in the gospels (apart from the names of some of the apostles) are fictitious.
You obviously believe Acts is somewhat reliable...
A bit of it. It is mainly a propaganda work. The authors of the other two synoptic gospels don't seem to have known much if anything about Paul and his writings. The author of Luke was aware of them though and realized that there was a problem between Paul's doctrine and the teachings found in the later synoptic gospels (including his own). Therefore he set out in Acts to try to harmonize the accounts and the overall doctrines between the two sets of works. It's a patchy effort at best. Paul was in open conflict with the so-called Jerusalem Pillars when you read his own letters (Paul was in fear of his life on at least one occasion). You will see very little of this in Acts. Also, the attempt at reconciling the two sets of doctrines doesn't really succeed. So, no, I don't trust Acts very much at all given the purpose for which it was written.
Do you believe only in part of the book? and not the rest? Where do you draw those lines, in Acts and the Gospels and the Epistles??
See above. Now that I have answered your questions, can we return to the thread subject?
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Re: Is Christianity Just The Result Of One Man's Illness?

Post #24

Post by showme »

[Replying to post 1 by RedEye]

It is somewhat irrelevant what people believe. Yeshua taught that if anyone says "He is in the wilderness", "do not believe them". (Matthew 24:26). Paul's message of lawlessness is somewhat self evident (Romans 7:6 & 25).

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Re: Is Christianity Just The Result Of One Man's Illness?

Post #25

Post by tam »

Peace to you,
RedEye wrote:
tam wrote: [Replying to post 1 by RedEye]

If a person ignores any details that conflicts with their theory or agenda, then of course a person can make up any story they like.

1 - Epileptic episodes do not have external things that other people experience. The two men with Paul heard the sound (they did not understand the words, but they did hear), and while they did not see Christ Himself, they are described as seeing a light that surrounded them all.

That is not a description of epilepsy. Nothing more should be needed than that.
I have already addressed that in my previous posts. I refer you to the first page of this thread.
Yes, you addressed it by discarding the details that conflict with your hypothesis.


2 - Something like scales fell from Paul's eyes. This is suggested by some to be a metaphor, but I understand that something like scales truly fell from his eyes. This is also not in line with epilepsy. But even if one cannot accept that, point 1 effectively disputes epilepsy. Unless of course one chooses to ignore any evidence that disproves their theory.
See above. A TLE episode can be a powerful and emotional experience. If the person having it is not aware of the cause (that it is a problem within the brain --- an uncontrolled electrical "storm") then of course they may consider the "visions" produced to be real.
What does this have to do with what I wrote?

3 - He was not speaking about himself in the passage about the man who had received visions, taken up to the third heaven, in or out of the body. You are correct that it is widely accepted that he is speaking of himself yet being humble, but something being widely accepted is not a good reason to believe it.
See my post just above this one where I have comprehensively refuted that claim.

You disputed the claim. You did not refute the claim.

Just because Paul also had a vision (at least one vision) does not mean that he cannot have boasted about another man who had a vision (the other man he is speaking about). He states in black and white that he is not boasting about himself, but rather about another man he knows, and he does not name that other man because it is not his right to do so.

But this is kind of beside the point. Because we know that others had visions as well as the vision Paul received of Christ on the road to Damascus... such as John and the Revelation given to him (of which Paul's description fits perfectly), and Peter (with the vision of the clean and unclean foods).


So Paul is not alone in having received a vision or revelation from Christ.



Peace again to you,
your servant and a slave of Christ,
tammy

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Re: Is Christianity Just The Result Of One Man's Illness?

Post #26

Post by Tart »

RedEye wrote: See above. Now that I have answered your questions, can we return to the thread subject?
Yes, the subject of the thread is
"Is Christianity Just The Result Of One Man's Illness?"

Yet you also say... "The authors of the other two synoptic gospels don't seem to have known much if anything about Paul and his writings. The author of Luke was aware of them though and realized that there was a problem between Paul's doctrine and the teachings found in the later synoptic gospels (including his own). Therefore he set out in Acts to try to harmonize the accounts and the overall doctrines between the two sets of works. "

You are suggesting the Gospels were written, not based on Paul and his testimony. That they have some sort of other inspiration that wasnt dependent, nor totally consistent with Paul's belief... So... If the Gospels are not based on Paul's testimony, by your own beliefs, doesnt that suggest Paul isnt the origin of them?

(note im going to reply to the rest of your comment in another reply becuase i think it is important to this topic.)

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Re: Is Christianity Just The Result Of One Man's Illness?

Post #27

Post by RedEye »

tam wrote:
RedEye wrote:
tam wrote: [Replying to post 1 by RedEye]

If a person ignores any details that conflicts with their theory or agenda, then of course a person can make up any story they like.

1 - Epileptic episodes do not have external things that other people experience. The two men with Paul heard the sound (they did not understand the words, but they did hear), and while they did not see Christ Himself, they are described as seeing a light that surrounded them all.

That is not a description of epilepsy. Nothing more should be needed than that.
I have already addressed that in my previous posts. I refer you to the first page of this thread.
Yes, you addressed it by discarding the details that conflict with your hypothesis.
No, I pointed out that accounts provided by hearsay decades later are not necessarily reliable in every detail. I also pointed out the incoherent nature of the claim that one of video/audio would be "leaked" to other bystanders. Furthermore I provided a reason why the author of Luke/Acts might have inserted such a detail. Since you address none of these arguments I can only assume that you concede them.
2 - Something like scales fell from Paul's eyes. This is suggested by some to be a metaphor, but I understand that something like scales truly fell from his eyes. This is also not in line with epilepsy. But even if one cannot accept that, point 1 effectively disputes epilepsy. Unless of course one chooses to ignore any evidence that disproves their theory.
See above. A TLE episode can be a powerful and emotional experience. If the person having it is not aware of the cause (that it is a problem within the brain --- an uncontrolled electrical "storm") then of course they may consider the "visions" produced to be real.
What does this have to do with what I wrote?
What do you want me to say? Do I believe that literal scales can fall from people's eyes? No, I don't. That's ridiculous. Of course it is a metaphor and that is what I was addressing, the underlying experience which might invoke the use of such a metaphor. As to point 1, why bother repeating it? How many times would you like me to give you the same answer?
3 - He was not speaking about himself in the passage about the man who had received visions, taken up to the third heaven, in or out of the body. You are correct that it is widely accepted that he is speaking of himself yet being humble, but something being widely accepted is not a good reason to believe it.
See my post just above this one where I have comprehensively refuted that claim.
You disputed the claim. You did not refute the claim.
You are entitled to your opinion. I beg to differ.
Just because Paul also had a vision (at least one vision) does not mean that he cannot have boasted about another man who had a vision (the other man he is speaking about). He states in black and white that he is not boasting about himself, but rather about another man he knows, and he does not name that other man because it is not his right to do so.
That can be easily explained by Paul choosing to show humility in this instance. In verse 7 though he reveals that it really is about him. Since you haven't bothered to address the arguments I made against this position but simply ignore them, once again I can only assume that you concede them.
But this is kind of beside the point. Because we know that others had visions as well as the vision Paul received of Christ on the road to Damascus... such as John and the Revelation given to him (of which Paul's description fits perfectly), and Peter (with the vision of the clean and unclean foods).
*sigh* We know no such thing. Those are claims, not evidence. Paul is different because:

a) He tells us that he suffered from an embarrassing lifelong "affliction".
b) He exhibits a common symptom of epilepsy (disinterest in sex).
c) He himself alludes to visions (how he received the gospel from no man).
d) Later independent support in Acts from the author of that work.
e) The accounts have sufficient detail (eg. temporary blindness) to link it to a TLE episode (supported by a neuropsychology researcher).
f) Some Christians had come to the same conclusion themselves referring to epilepsy as St. Paul's disease in old Ireland.
So Paul is not alone in having received a vision or revelation from Christ.
He is alone in those visions being believable and consistent with an epileptic condition.
Last edited by RedEye on Sun Dec 23, 2018 9:02 pm, edited 1 time in total.
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Re: Is Christianity Just The Result Of One Man's Illness?

Post #28

Post by RedEye »

Tart wrote:
RedEye wrote: See above. Now that I have answered your questions, can we return to the thread subject?
Yes, the subject of the thread is
"Is Christianity Just The Result Of One Man's Illness?"

Yet you also say... "The authors of the other two synoptic gospels don't seem to have known much if anything about Paul and his writings. The author of Luke was aware of them though and realized that there was a problem between Paul's doctrine and the teachings found in the later synoptic gospels (including his own). Therefore he set out in Acts to try to harmonize the accounts and the overall doctrines between the two sets of works. "

You are suggesting the Gospels were written, not based on Paul and his testimony. That they have some sort of other inspiration that wasnt dependent, nor totally consistent with Paul's belief... So... If the Gospels are not based on Paul's testimony, by your own beliefs, doesnt that suggest Paul isnt the origin of them?
I agree to a point. Knowledge about a saviour Jesus could have spread via word of mouth without people necessarily having access to Paul's writings. If you read Mark you hardly see anything from Paul apart from the name Jesus and him being crucified (an empty tomb but no actual resurrection). (And the names of some of the apostles). So there are two different traditions on Jesus here. The tradition which comes from Paul and which also led to Marcionism and the tradition which originates with Mark, was built upon by Matthew and Luke (and then later John) and which often competed with Paul. (The author of Luke tried to reconcile the two in Acts as I have already explained). The question is which of these traditions is more influential in framing what Christianity eventually became? I would argue that it is Paul's. His writings make up much of the NT. See my comments at the bottom of post #12:

ref:Re:%20Is%20Christianity%20Just%20The%20Result%20Of%20One%20Man's%20Illness?

I also still maintain that without Paul and his introduction of a dying/rising Jesus on top of Judaism (via his "visions"), the author of Mark would probably have never been inspired (indirectly since he displays no direct knowledge of Paul's writings) to produce his gospel.
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Re: Is Christianity Just The Result Of One Man's Illness?

Post #29

Post by tam »

Peace again to you redeye,

RedEye wrote:
tam wrote:
RedEye wrote:
tam wrote: [Replying to post 1 by RedEye]

If a person ignores any details that conflicts with their theory or agenda, then of course a person can make up any story they like.

1 - Epileptic episodes do not have external things that other people experience. The two men with Paul heard the sound (they did not understand the words, but they did hear), and while they did not see Christ Himself, they are described as seeing a light that surrounded them all.

That is not a description of epilepsy. Nothing more should be needed than that.
I have already addressed that in my previous posts. I refer you to the first page of this thread.
Yes, you addressed it by discarding the details that conflict with your hypothesis.
No, I pointed out that accounts provided by hearsay decades later are not necessarily reliable in every detail.
Yes, I know, the details that refute your hypothesis are the ones that are unreliable, right?

I do not see how this reasoning is much different than various religions that claim the scriptures refuting their doctrines are just interpreted incorrectly.
I also pointed out the incoherent nature of the claim that one of video/audio would be "leaked" to other bystanders.
Why would this claim be incoherent? You're assuming 'leaked' as if this was supposed to have been something that no one else witnessed. Why do you assume this?
Furthermore I provided a reason why the author of Luke/Acts might have inserted such a detail.


To give it weight? Why would Luke have felt the need to do that? You are claiming that Paul's sole testimony of this vision was enough for Luke to believe, since you are stating that Christ was not even an idea before Paul had and shared his vision (even though both Luke in Acts and Paul in his own letters refute this claim... Galatians 1:13.) If it was enough for Luke, why would he feel the need to add more weight to it for others?


You are also suggesting that someone who so devotedly believed (as Paul would have believed, due to his vision)... lied.

Only after three years did I go up to Jerusalem to confer with Cephas, and I stayed with him fifteen days. But I saw none of the other apostles except James, the Lords brother. I assure you before God that what I am writing to you is no lie.


"James, the Lord's brother" also disputes your claim that Paul had no knowledge of a human Christ.
Since you address none of these arguments I can only assume that you concede them.
I think you may have assumed a great many things that are untrue.
2 - Something like scales fell from Paul's eyes. This is suggested by some to be a metaphor, but I understand that something like scales truly fell from his eyes. This is also not in line with epilepsy. But even if one cannot accept that, point 1 effectively disputes epilepsy. Unless of course one chooses to ignore any evidence that disproves their theory.
See above. A TLE episode can be a powerful and emotional experience. If the person having it is not aware of the cause (that it is a problem within the brain --- an uncontrolled electrical "storm") then of course they may consider the "visions" produced to be real.
What does this have to do with what I wrote?
What do you want me to say? Do I believe that literal scales can fall from people's eyes? No, I don't. That's ridiculous. Of course it is a metaphor and that is what I was addressing, the underlying experience which might invoke the use of such a metaphor.


But Luke is the author, not Paul, correct? Luke did not have that underlying experience so as to invoke the use of such a metaphor. Nor does Luke use that metaphor in his previously written gospel, in which a blind man did receive his sight. (Luke 18:35-43)


3 - He was not speaking about himself in the passage about the man who had received visions, taken up to the third heaven, in or out of the body. You are correct that it is widely accepted that he is speaking of himself yet being humble, but something being widely accepted is not a good reason to believe it.
See my post just above this one where I have comprehensively refuted that claim.
You disputed the claim. You did not refute the claim.
You are entitled to your opinion. I beg to differ.
Just because Paul also had a vision (at least one vision) does not mean that he cannot have boasted about another man who had a vision (the other man he is speaking about). He states in black and white that he is not boasting about himself, but rather about another man he knows, and he does not name that other man because it is not his right to do so.
That can be easily explained by Paul choosing to show humility in this instance. In verse 7 though he reveals that it really is about him.
You mean humility for a couple of sentences? Why? If he reveals in verse 7 that it was really about him, then where is the humility?


But this is kind of beside the point. Because we know that others had visions as well as the vision Paul received of Christ on the road to Damascus... such as John and the Revelation given to him (of which Paul's description fits perfectly), and Peter (with the vision of the clean and unclean foods).
*sigh* We know no such thing. Those are claims, not evidence.

If you consider corroboration to be evidence, then John's revelation is corroborated in Paul speaking about him and his revelation (as the man caught up to the third heaven) and even in Daniel who received similar visions as John.

But let's look at your points:
Paul is different because:

a) He tells us that he suffered from an embarrassing lifelong "affliction".
No he does not. He said that he was given a thorn in the flesh (stating that this 'thorn' must be epilepsy is speculation and conjecture). Paul does not state that this thorn was lifelong.

Nor is it ever mentioned anywhere that Paul suffered from seizures (and continued to suffer this through his entire ministry), which seems a simple enough thing to mention if it were true.

If epilepsy was one of those diseases that people 'spit at', does it seem likely that Paul would have been rising in the ranks as a Pharisee (just think about how much importance was placed upon afflicted and diseased people being unclean, being sinners - that such a man would rise in the ranks?)?
b) He exhibits a common symptom of epilepsy (disinterest in sex).
I believe William disputed this earlier with Paul's knowledge of what it meant to 'burn with passion'.

Just because one chooses not to marry (or even to be celibate) does not mean that they are suffering from epilepsy or even that they are disinterested in sex.
c) He himself alludes to visions (how he received the gospel from no man).
He states that he learned from Christ. I have no argument with you on that. But one does not need to have visions in order to learn from Christ. One can listen (and so hear Christ), as is also attested to. Paul does not state that he learned only in visions.


*Side point: You are suggesting also that Paul's vision invented Christ, are you not? But then how were others (such as the apostles) preaching Christ first?
d) Later independent support in Acts from the author of that work.
Later independent support from Acts also corroborates Paul stating that he is the least of the apostles and that Christ appeared to him LAST.

For what I received I passed on to you as of first importance: that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures, that He was buried, that He was raised on the third day according to the Scriptures, and that He appeared to Cephas and then to the Twelve. After that, He appeared to more than five hundred brothers at once, most of whom are still living, though some have fallen asleep. Then He appeared to James, then to all the apostles. And last of all He appeared to me also, as to one of untimely birth. For I am the least of the apostles and am unworthy to be called an apostle, because I persecuted the church of God. 1 Corinthians 15:3-9


This directly refutes your claim that Paul's vision invented Christ and others later made up an 'historical Jesus'. The above quote from Paul in Corinthians is corroborated by the account given by Luke in Acts.


e) The accounts have sufficient detail (eg. temporary blindness) to link it to a TLE episode (supported by a neuropsycholy researcher).
To suggest the possibility of that link you mean (providing that one ignores the two witnesses and the absence of any mention of further episodes). In the paper you linked to in the OP, others disputed the likelihood that Paul had epilepsy, and still others postulated multiple medical possibilities for his blindness.

Even diagnosing someone in person often has a great deal to do with ruling things out, even with all our medical advancements and technology.


f) Some Christians had come to the same conclusion themselves referring to epilepsy as St. Paul's disease in old Ireland.
Some may have believed this; but that is hardly evidence for it being true.
So Paul is not alone in having received a vision or revelation from Christ.
He is alone in those visions being believable and consistent with an epileptic condition.

I also believe that his vision occurred, so I have no argument with you on that. Just on the cause.





Peace again to you,
your servant and a slave of Christ,
tammy

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Re: Is Christianity Just The Result Of One Man's Illness?

Post #30

Post by RedEye »

tam wrote:
RedEye wrote: No, I pointed out that accounts provided by hearsay decades later are not necessarily reliable in every detail.
Yes, I know, the details that refute your hypothesis are the ones that are unreliable, right?
In this instance, given all the other indicators for it being epilepsy which I have listed, yes I firmly believe that to be the case. You take the position that every word in every gospel is the literal truth. You do this for no good reason other than your faith. I do not. How do you explain the contradiction between Acts 9:7 and Acts 22:9? You can't unless you are prepared to admit that the details can be messed up (or invented).
I do not see how this reasoning is much different than various religions that claim the scriptures refuting their doctrines are just interpreted incorrectly.
This is not about interpretation so I'm not sure what you are alluding to.
I also pointed out the incoherent nature of the claim that one of video/audio would be "leaked" to other bystanders.
Why would this claim be incoherent? You're assuming 'leaked' as if this was supposed to have been something that no one else witnessed. Why do you assume this?
Um, because if it was a TLE episode then no-one could have seen or heard anything. It was all in Paul's head. My point is that if this was not an epileptic episode and spirit Jesus was giving a vision to Paul for some purpose then you would expect that he would provide full video and audio for everyone present or he would provide video and audio only to Paul. That he would provide sound (but not sight) to his companions or the other way around makes no logical sense.
Furthermore I provided a reason why the author of Luke/Acts might have inserted such a detail.

To give it weight?
That is not what I argued although this could have been a minor reason. Please address what I actually argued.
You are claiming that Paul's sole testimony of this vision was enough for Luke to believe, since you are stating that Christ was not even an idea before Paul had and shared his vision (even though both Luke in Acts and Paul in his own letters refute this claim... Galatians 1:13).
The Galatians quote is from long after Paul had his vision so I'm not sure what point you think you are making. It mentions nothing about persecuting Christians and that is consistent with my position of Paul hallucinating Jesus Christ due to an epileptic seizure.
If it was enough for Luke, why would he feel the need to add more weight to it for others?
You might have to ask the author of Luke. Perhaps he thought others might be more skeptical of such an uncorroborated episode? He needed for there to be a witness or two to prevent the charge that it was a hallucination by one person?
You are also suggesting that someone who so devotedly believed (as Paul would have believed, due to his vision)... lied.

Only after three years did I go up to Jerusalem to confer with Cephas, and I stayed with him fifteen days. But I saw none of the other apostles except James, the Lords brother. I assure you before God that what I am writing to you is no lie.

"James, the Lord's brother" also disputes your claim that Paul had no knowledge of a human Christ.
This is one of those probable later interpolations I have referred to:

https://vridar.org/2016/01/16/the-funct ... tians-119/

If it is not, it could still be the case that "brother" was used as Paul used it often --- to refer not to family but to brethren in the church. All members of such a congregation considered themselves as "brothers" and used this language. Therefore this one verse is not conclusive proof of anything. (This is off-topic though and I won't respond to this further).
Since you address none of these arguments I can only assume that you concede them.
I think you may have assumed a great many things that are untrue.
At the point I wrote that you hadn't addressed any of my arguments so it was a perfectly reasonable assumption to make.
What do you want me to say? Do I believe that literal scales can fall from people's eyes? No, I don't. That's ridiculous. Of course it is a metaphor and that is what I was addressing, the underlying experience which might invoke the use of such a metaphor.

But Luke is the author, not Paul, correct? Luke did not have that underlying experience so as to invoke the use of such a metaphor. Nor does Luke use that metaphor in his previously written gospel, in which a blind man did receive his sight. (Luke 18:35-43).
Is this supposed to be a refutation? Anyone can use a metaphor whether it applies to a personal experience or a description of one. I have nothing more to add unless you make a valid point.
That can be easily explained by Paul choosing to show humility in this instance. In verse 7 though he reveals that it really is about him.
You mean humility for a couple of sentences? Why?
Um, because he was a humble person perhaps? :-s
If he reveals in verse 7 that it was really about him, then where is the humility?
In the verses preceding it. Why don't you try addressing the actual point (which is not about his attempts at humility and whether they are successful or not)? Do you agree that in verse 7 Paul reveals that he is talking about himself? Yes or no.
But let's look at your points:
Paul is different because:

a) He tells us that he suffered from an embarrassing lifelong "affliction".
No he does not. He said that he was given a thorn in the flesh (stating that this 'thorn' must be epilepsy is speculation and conjecture). Paul does not state that this thorn was lifelong.
Let me qualify. It was lifelong for at least his adult life. Paul tells us that he pleaded three times with God to remove this affliction but God would not ("in order to keep me from becoming conceited") That makes it lifelong to me.
Nor is it ever mentioned anywhere that Paul suffered from seizures (and continued to suffer this through his entire ministry), which seems a simple enough thing to mention if it were true.
I have already addressed this. He didn't want to name his condition through embarrassment and shame.
If epilepsy was one of those diseases that people 'spit at', does it seem likely that Paul would have been rising in the ranks as a Pharisee (just think about how much importance was placed upon afflicted and diseased people being unclean, being sinners - that such a man would rise in the ranks?)?
And why should I believe that story?
b) He exhibits a common symptom of epilepsy (disinterest in sex).
I believe William disputed this earlier with Paul's knowledge of what it meant to 'burn with passion'.
And I believe I refuted that having knowledge about something necessarily means that you experience it yourself. I have knowledge of people (including priests) having an uncontrollable urge to sexually abuse young children. That doesn't mean that I have that urge.
Just because one chooses not to marry (or even to be celibate) does not mean that they are suffering from epilepsy or even that they are disinterested in sex.
That wasn't my argument.
c) He himself alludes to visions (how he received the gospel from no man).
He states that he learned from Christ. I have no argument with you on that. But one does not need to have visions in order to learn from Christ. One can listen (and so hear Christ), as is also attested to. Paul does not state that he learned only in visions.
Again, is this supposed to be a refutation? I see nothing here except an appeal to mystical communication with a mythical being.
*Side point: You are suggesting also that Paul's vision invented Christ, are you not? But then how were others (such as the apostles) preaching Christ first?
Were they? Prove it (from Paul's authentic writings, not what came later).
d) Later independent support in Acts from the author of that work.
Later independent support from Acts also corroborates Paul stating that he is the least of the apostles and that Christ appeared to him LAST.

For what I received I passed on to you as of first importance: that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures, that He was buried, that He was raised on the third day according to the Scriptures, and that He appeared to Cephas and then to the Twelve. After that, He appeared to more than five hundred brothers at once, most of whom are still living, though some have fallen asleep. Then He appeared to James, then to all the apostles. And last of all He appeared to me also, as to one of untimely birth. For I am the least of the apostles and am unworthy to be called an apostle, because I persecuted the church of God. 1 Corinthians 15:3-9

This directly refutes your claim that Paul's vision invented Christ and others later made up an 'historical Jesus'. The above quote from Paul in Corinthians is corroborated by the account given by Luke in Acts.
It's actually lifted straight from Acts. It's yet another later interpolation. "The stubborn fact remains: in Galatians Paul tells his readers that what he preached to them when he founded their church was not taught him by human predecessors. In 1 Cor 15 he is depicted as telling his readers that what he preached to them when he founded their church was taught him by human predecessors". That's a direct contradiction.

http://historical-jesus.info/9.html

The "Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures" gives the game away. What scriptures could Paul know about that had Christ dying for our sins? They hadn't been written yet! (This is also off-topic though and I won't respond further to this side issue).
e) The accounts have sufficient detail (eg. temporary blindness) to link it to a TLE episode (supported by a neuropsycholy researcher).
To suggest the possibility of that link you mean (providing that one ignores the two witnesses and the absence of any mention of further episodes). In the paper you linked to in the OP, others disputed the likelihood that Paul had epilepsy, and still others postulated multiple medical possibilities for his blindness.

Even diagnosing someone in person often has a great deal to do with ruling things out, even with all our medical advancements and technology.
Apart from the nit-picking, the linked article arrives at the conclusion of epilepsy. Correct?
f) Some Christians had come to the same conclusion themselves referring to epilepsy as St. Paul's disease in old Ireland.
Some may have believed this; but that is hardly evidence for it being true.
I love it. Whenever you state that you believe something in future, this will be my standard response back to you. O:)
I also believe that his vision occurred, so I have no argument with you on that. Just on the cause.


You may believe this; but that is hardly evidence for it being true. ;)
Never ascribe to malice that which can be explained by incompetence.

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