The Millennium, the 1000 years of Revelation 20...

[Checkpoint]

This thread stems from the following exchange between myself and Pinseeker:

PinSeeker wrote:

The millennium of Revelation 20 is not a future event. It was when Jeremiah prophesied, obviously, but is not anymore. Or, to be more exacting, it's no longer merely a future event.

Checkpoint asked:

Then why do so many believers think of it as yet future only?

Pinseeker explained:

For at least two reasons, I think:

1. A basic misunderstanding of Revelation as a whole, and the Millennium of chapter 20 included.

2. Many believers (primarily western believers) have bought into the heresy of the "rapture," which came about in the early 19th century. It's not that they are heretics, it's just that that's all they've ever been exposed to.

That's one take from one school of thought.

Your take may be similar or be completely different.

Please share it here, and tell us why you hold that position.

[myth-one.com]

The man Christ Jesus continues to sit at the right hand of his Father, mediating on the throne of grace, still existing as Jesus Christ.

One of his many names is the Word of God.

One person, alive forever, in one resurrected body, which he said was "flesh and bones".

So the man Jesus sits at the right hand of His Father.

One of Jesus' names is the Word.

And the Word is God:

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

So the man Jesus = The Word = God

Thus God is a man?

[JehovahsWitness]

But however it's described, yes, Jesus was a physical flesh and blood human being.

Did The Word become a flesh and blood human being? Is that what you are saying?

I'm saying that's what the scriptures state.

So the word was one being and at a certain moment in time he split from one being into TWO BEINGS: One that would stay in heaven [1] and the other being that would come to earth as a flesh and blood human [2].

THE WORD was one being and in the first century he became two beings. Is that what you are saying?

Two beings.

The spiritual bodied Word and the natural bodied Jesus.

JW

[JehovahsWitness]

So the man Jesus = The Word ....

What do you mean by using the symbol "=" {equal}?

I ask because most of us understand "=" to mean "the same" ie for many "Jesus = The Word" would mean one being. But you count Jesus as one being and the Word as a completely different being. Is that not so?

Two beings.

The spiritual bodied Word and the natural bodied Jesus.

[Checkpoint]

The man Christ Jesus continues to sit at the right hand of his Father, mediating on the throne of grace, still existing as Jesus Christ.

One of his many names is the Word of God.

One person, alive forever, in one resurrected body, which he said was "flesh and bones".

So the man Jesus sits at the right hand of His Father.

One of Jesus' names is the Word.

And the Word is God:

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

So the man Jesus = The Word = God

Thus God is a man?

John 1:1-3 is in the past tense; "the Word was", not "the Word is".

The Word became/was made flesh.

Grace and peace.

[myth-one.com]

The man Christ Jesus continues to sit at the right hand of his Father, mediating on the throne of grace, still existing as Jesus Christ.

One of his many names is the Word of God.

One person, alive forever, in one resurrected body, which he said was "flesh and bones".

So the man Jesus sits at the right hand of His Father.

One of Jesus' names is the Word.

And the Word is God:

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

So the man Jesus = The Word = God

Thus God is a man?

John 1:1-3 is in the past tense; "the Word was", not "the Word is".

The Word became/was made flesh.

Grace and peace.

1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

2 The same was in the beginning with God.

3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.

It's past tense because it happened in the past.

How does using the term "was" affect any of these statements which you made?:

The man Christ Jesus continues to sit at the right hand of his Father, mediating on the throne of grace, still existing as Jesus Christ.

One of his many names is the Word of God.

One person, alive forever, in one resurrected body, which he said was "flesh and bones".

Are you claiming that the Word no longer exists?

Or the Word is no longer with God?

Or the Word is no longer God?

What's your point?

[myth-one.com]

But however it's described, yes, Jesus was a physical flesh and blood human being.

Did The Word become a flesh and blood human being? Is that what you are saying?

I'm saying that's what the scriptures state.

So the word was one being and at a certain moment in time he split from one being into TWO BEINGS: One that would stay in heaven [1] and the other being that would come to earth as a flesh and blood human [2].

THE WORD was one being and in the first century he became two beings. Is that what you are saying?

Two beings.

The spiritual bodied Word and the natural bodied Jesus.

JW

There is a natural body, and there is a spiritual body. (I Corinthians 15:44)

There is no hybrid spiritual/natural bodied mentioned in the Bible.

Each of the two body types require a separate and distinct type of birth:

That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit. (John 3:6)

The Word is an immortal spiritual bodied being.

The Word was made flesh as the man Jesus Christ.

So the Word is a spiritual bodied being, and Jesus (the Word made flesh) is flesh.

And they don't mix:

There are also celestial bodies, and bodies terrestrial: but the glory of the celestial is one, and the glory of the terrestrial is another. (I Corinthians 15:40)

48 As is the earthy, such are they also that are earthy: and as is the heavenly, such are they also that are heavenly.

49 And as we have borne the image of the earthy, we shall also bear the image of the heavenly.

50 Now this I say, brethren, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God; neither doth corruption inherit incorruption.

If the Word is immortal and Jesus was flesh, then there were two separate beings.

One is immortal and one could die.

But they had the same goal and were one in purpose.

Today, the Word made flesh is past tense.

[Checkpoint]

The man Christ Jesus continues to sit at the right hand of his Father, mediating on the throne of grace, still existing as Jesus Christ.

One of his many names is the Word of God.

One person, alive forever, in one resurrected body, which he said was "flesh and bones".

So the man Jesus sits at the right hand of His Father.

One of Jesus' names is the Word.

And the Word is God:

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

So the man Jesus = The Word = God

Thus God is a man?

John 1:1-3 is in the past tense; "the Word was", not "the Word is".

The Word became/was made flesh.

Grace and peace.

1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

2 The same was in the beginning with God.

3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.

It's past tense because it happened in the past.

How does using the term "was" affect any of these statements which you made?:

The man Christ Jesus continues to sit at the right hand of his Father, mediating on the throne of grace, still existing as Jesus Christ.

One of his many names is the Word of God.

One person, alive forever, in one resurrected body, which he said was "flesh and bones".

Are you claiming that the Word no longer exists?

Or the Word is no longer with God?

Or the Word is no longer God?

What's your point?

My point? Something like this:

We are all trying to get a handle on some verses in John 1, and we are all at a loss yet also, somehow, imagining we have it sussed.

Do we? I think not.

Apart from John 1, the Word has no place or explanation.

Unless 1 John 1:1-4 is that place and that explanation.

It is for me.

Grace and peace to you.

[myth-one.com]

[Replying to post 243 by Checkpoint]

The man Christ Jesus continues to sit at the right hand of his Father, mediating on the throne of grace, still existing as Jesus Christ.

One of his many names is the Word of God.

One person, alive forever, in one resurrected body, which he said was "flesh and bones".

You're still OK with a flesh and bones man over 2,000 years old sitting at the right hand of God for all eternity?

[JehovahsWitness]

One is immortal and one could die.

So why did the flesh and blood man say he existed before Abraham? How can this be true when he wasn't even 40 years old?

[JehovahsWitness]

[Replying to post 242 by myth-one.com]

Why did the flesh and blood man say he enjoyed glory "before the world existed"?

JOHN 17:5

Father, glorify me in your presence with that glory I had with you before the world existed.

How can this be true when he wasn't even 40 years old?