1213 wrote:If we look the whole Matthew 5:22, it says:
But I tell you, that everyone who is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment; and whoever shall say to his brother, 'Raca ["Raca" is an Aramaic insult, related to the word for "empty" and conveying the idea of empty-headedness.]!' shall be in danger of the council; and whoever shall say, 'You fool!' shall be in danger of the fire of Gehenna
Matthew 5:22
There is the “…without cause…� and “…in danger…�. I think Jesus had right cause and therefore I don’t think he has to worry about hell.
I never cease to be amazed at what Christian apologists come up with! I'm afraid your apologetic here won't work, however, amazing or not. The "without a cause" stipulation applies only to being angry with one's brother and not to calling somebody a fool. If you call somebody a "fool," having a cause or not having a cause, you are in danger of Jesus' Father of the Sky tossing you into his furnace. Since Jesus called the Pharisees fools, he was in danger of going to his own hell.
But I wonder, why you need to cherry pick like that?
I'm reading your Bible, and I'm finding a lot of nonsense in it. Would you prefer I not read the Bible? If people read the Bible and come up with conclusions about what it says that upsets you, then maybe you should encourage people not to read the Bible. Tell them that if they do read it and repeat what they've read, then you may become very "angry with your brother"!
If Bible, Jesus and God are wrong, I would assume you wouldn’t need this kind of stuff.
Again, I'm getting "this kind of stuff" from the Bible. So allow me to offer another suggestion: tell people that yes, they should read the Bible, but they should be very careful when reading it because it is very easy to misunderstand it. Offer to guide them with your own "correct" interpretation.
And in Matthew 5:39 (NRSV) we are told:
But I say to you, Do not resist an evildoer. But if anyone strikes you on the right cheek, turn the other also...
In John 18:23 (NRSV) Jesus is struck. Did he turn and offer the other cheek?
Jesus answered, “If I have spoken wrongly, testify to the wrong. But if I have spoken rightly, why do you strike me?�
No, he didn't!
That doesn’t tell Jesus didn’t turn his other cheek and more importantly, he didn’t hit the one who hit him. It tells Jesus asked why.
Again, I'm just going on what I'm reading in your Bible. Since John 18:23 does not mention Jesus "turning the other cheek" after being struck, I conclude that he didn't turn the other cheek. If Jesus did turn the other cheek offering to be struck again, then John should have reported it.
So what is it here? Did Jesus fail to practice what he preached, or is John leaving out very important details from his story demonstrating his incompetence as a historian?