The Shortest Way To The Truth

[OneJack]

The Shortest Way To The Truth

There are two important things about knowing God and the way to the salvation of our souls that we have to consider to keep ourselves away from deceptions, to wit:

1. Neither the bible nor John, Luke, Matthew, Paul, and the rest of the apostles is God.

2. Jesus is Immanuel, who is always beside us all the time. He is in a 24/7 watch mode for us who will come to Him and call on Him for the salvation of our souls.

Why do we have to be so obsessed with biblical accounts that we treat them as if they were the only source of truth about God and the salvation of our souls when Jesus is with us always, though we do not see Him yet? He can surely bring us to the truth if we come to Him and call on Him in the right way. Jesus, real and forever living God, is the only way to the truth about God and our salvation.

[OneJack]

QUESTION 1. Did he say whether the rest of the bible was originally in line with Jeremiah 1v9 and 30v2 (see above)? Yes or No?

He said nothing since the supposed bible contains only three (3) pages.

'QUESTION 2. Did he say that Jeremiah 1v9 and 30v2 (see above) are NOT part of the three pages? Yes or No? and do not add your human words which are not Almighty God, just opinion (please strip out of your reply to me all your opinion words)

He said nothing at all.

[Capbook]

QUESTION 1. Did he say whether the rest of the bible was originally in line with Jeremiah 1v9 and 30v2 (see above)? Yes or No?

He said nothing since the supposed bible contains only three (3) pages.

'QUESTION 2. Did he say that Jeremiah 1v9 and 30v2 (see above) are NOT part of the three pages? Yes or No? and do not add your human words which are not Almighty God, just opinion (please strip out of your reply to me all your opinion words)

He said nothing at all.

OneJack, again you skipped my Post#183. Why?

As I will not put mine own words over the written words inspired by God.
And if the "divinely inspired" not sufficient to you, would you make and insert finite fallible mind understanding over the infallible word of the infinite Almighty God?
But I am interested to know your opinion what "divinely inspired" means OneJack?

[JehovahsWitness]

“Kung susumahin ang aking mga winika na aking ipinasulat para maging kasulatan para sa sangkatauhan ay hindi lalagpas ang mga ito sa mga tatlong pahina lamang kumpara sa napakakapal na mga pahina ngayon ng inyong mga kasulatan na nasa aklat na ngayo’y tinatawag ninyong Bibliya.”

TAGALOG == > "ang aking mga winika na aking ipinasulat"
ENGLISH == > "my words that I had written"

MY QUESTIONS FOR YOU NOW ARE REGARDING THE ABOVE ...


QUESTION 1 Does this mean that the Almighty's words were written ? Please answer yes or no.
QUESTION 2 If yes, would they, based on the words of your so-called "Jesus", be "the words [ winika ] written [ ipinasulat] "? Please answer "yes" or "No" (strip your post of your opinion)

QUESTION 3 So would that mean that at some point there existed the written [ ipinasulat] words [ winika ] of Almighty God ? Please answer Yes or No.

[OneJack]

QUESTION 1. Did he say whether the rest of the bible was originally in line with Jeremiah 1v9 and 30v2 (see above)? Yes or No?

He said nothing since the supposed bible contains only three (3) pages.

'QUESTION 2. Did he say that Jeremiah 1v9 and 30v2 (see above) are NOT part of the three pages? Yes or No? and do not add your human words which are not Almighty God, just opinion (please strip out of your reply to me all your opinion words)

He said nothing at all.

OneJack, again you skipped my Post#183. Why?

As I will not put mine own words over the written words inspired by God.
And if the "divinely inspired" not sufficient to you, would you make and insert finite fallible mind understanding over the infallible word of the infinite Almighty God?
But I am interested to know your opinion what "divinely inspired" means OneJack?

The Lord Jesus taught us that 'God-breathed,' 'inspired by God,' 'divinely inspired,' and the like simply means 'allowed by God to be written,' no more, no less.

[OneJack]

“Kung susumahin ang aking mga winika na aking ipinasulat para maging kasulatan para sa sangkatauhan ay hindi lalagpas ang mga ito sa mga tatlong pahina lamang kumpara sa napakakapal na mga pahina ngayon ng inyong mga kasulatan na nasa aklat na ngayo’y tinatawag ninyong Bibliya.”

TAGALOG == > "ang aking mga winika na aking ipinasulat"
ENGLISH == > "my words that I had written"

MY QUESTIONS FOR YOU NOW ARE REGARDING THE ABOVE ...


QUESTION 1 Does this mean that the Almighty's words were written ? Please answer yes or no.

'
No. The translation for 'ipinasulat' is wrong. Your phrase, 'Almighty's words' doesn't mathch 'aking mga winika.'

QUESTION 2 If yes, would they, based on the words of your so-called "Jesus", be "the words [ winika ] written [ ipinasulat] "? Please answer "yes" or "No" (strip your post of your opinion)

N/A

QUESTION 3 So would that mean that at some point there existed the written [ ipinasulat] words [ winika ] of Almighty God ? Please answer Yes or No.

Since your translation is wrong, questions 2 and 3 are null and void.

[Capbook]

QUESTION 1. Did he say whether the rest of the bible was originally in line with Jeremiah 1v9 and 30v2 (see above)? Yes or No?

He said nothing since the supposed bible contains only three (3) pages.

'QUESTION 2. Did he say that Jeremiah 1v9 and 30v2 (see above) are NOT part of the three pages? Yes or No? and do not add your human words which are not Almighty God, just opinion (please strip out of your reply to me all your opinion words)

He said nothing at all.

OneJack, again you skipped my Post#183. Why?

As I will not put mine own words over the written words inspired by God.
And if the "divinely inspired" not sufficient to you, would you make and insert finite fallible mind understanding over the infallible word of the infinite Almighty God?
But I am interested to know your opinion what "divinely inspired" means OneJack?

The Lord Jesus taught us that 'God-breathed,' 'inspired by God,' 'divinely inspired,' and the like simply means 'allowed by God to be written,' no more, no less.

I believe you mean as being "written" with Strong#G1124, in Greek "γραφή graphē" Bible lexicon defined it ass means - Scriptures.
Can you agree with the Credentialed Lexicographer OneJack?
Nothing there are mine.

2Ti 3:16  R1AllG3956 ScriptureG1124 is N1inspiredG2315 by GodG2315 and profitableG5624 for teachingG1319, for reproofG1649a, for correctionG1882, for N2trainingG3809 in righteousnessG1343;

G1124 (Thayer Lexicon)
γραφή graphē
1) a writing, thing written

[JehovahsWitness]

The translation for 'ipinasulat' is wrong

No it is not wrong...

IPINASULAT

. ipinasulat means "WRITE/written"

=> The Tagalog word “ipinasulat” comes from the root word “sulat” (meaning to write) and uses the verb affixes “ipina-”, which usually indicate causative action.

i- → focus marker (object-focused verb)
-pina- → causative (make/ask someone to do something)
sulat → root word (“write”)
-in- (hidden inside “pina”) → past/completed aspect marker

So “ipinasulat” is in the completed aspect (often translated as past tense in English):

“had [something] written”
“made someone write”
“asked someone to write”

source ChatGpt

Is the above translational explanation is correct Yes or No. If no present your argument (please stick to verificable linguistics).

[OneJack]

The translation for 'ipinasulat' is wrong

No it is not wrong...

IPINASULAT

. ipinasulat means "WRITE/written"

=> The Tagalog word “ipinasulat” comes from the root word “sulat” (meaning to write) and uses the verb affixes “ipina-”, which usually indicate causative action.

i- → focus marker (object-focused verb)
-pina- → causative (make/ask someone to do something)
sulat → root word (“write”)
-in- (hidden inside “pina”) → past/completed aspect marker

So “ipinasulat” is in the completed aspect (often translated as past tense in English):

“had [something] written”
“made someone write”
“asked someone to write”

source ChatGpt

Is the above translational explanation is correct Yes or No. If no present your argument (please stick to verificable linguistics).

Your translation:

TAGALOG == > "ang aking mga winika na aking ipinasulat"
ENGLISH == > "my words that I had written

Direct translation: "My uttered words that I commanded to be written."

[OneJack]

QUESTION 1. Did he say whether the rest of the bible was originally in line with Jeremiah 1v9 and 30v2 (see above)? Yes or No?

He said nothing since the supposed bible contains only three (3) pages.

'QUESTION 2. Did he say that Jeremiah 1v9 and 30v2 (see above) are NOT part of the three pages? Yes or No? and do not add your human words which are not Almighty God, just opinion (please strip out of your reply to me all your opinion words)

He said nothing at all.

OneJack, again you skipped my Post#183. Why?

As I will not put mine own words over the written words inspired by God.
And if the "divinely inspired" not sufficient to you, would you make and insert finite fallible mind understanding over the infallible word of the infinite Almighty God?
But I am interested to know your opinion what "divinely inspired" means OneJack?

The Lord Jesus taught us that 'God-breathed,' 'inspired by God,' 'divinely inspired,' and the like simply means 'allowed by God to be written,' no more, no less.

I believe you mean as being "written" with Strong#G1124, in Greek "γραφή graphē" Bible lexicon defined it ass means - Scriptures.
Can you agree with the Credentialed Lexicographer OneJack?
Nothing there are mine.

2Ti 3:16  R1AllG3956 ScriptureG1124 is N1inspiredG2315 by GodG2315 and profitableG5624 for teachingG1319, for reproofG1649a, for correctionG1882, for N2trainingG3809 in righteousnessG1343;

G1124 (Thayer Lexicon)
γραφή graphē
1) a writing, thing written

I only follow/agree with no one but the Lord alone.

[JehovahsWitness]

I only follow/agree with no one but the Lord alone.

That's good because we are analysing what your so-called "Lord" told you. Let's look closely at what he said ....



IPINASULAT

. ipinasulat means "WRITE/written"

=> The Tagalog word “ipinasulat” comes from the root word “sulat” (meaning to write) and uses the verb affixes “ipina-”, which usually indicate causative action.

i- → focus marker (object-focused verb)
-pina- → causative (make/ask someone to do something)
sulat → root word (“write”)
-in- (hidden inside “pina”) → past/completed aspect marker

So “ipinasulat” is in the completed aspect (often translated as past tense in English):

“had [something] written”
“made someone write”
“asked someone to write”

source ChatGpt