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Replying to post 14 by marco]
It is really useless to debate with one who cannot determine the difference between those things which can be demonstrated to be fact, as opposed to those things which have not been demonstrated to be fact.
In your arguments about "facts" you correctly say that it is a fact we have stories and names of people. I believe you are confusing this useless piece of information with something along the lines of "we have important facts" that lead us to make certain rational conclusions.
There are many conclusions we can draw, as we examine the facts, and evidence we have. However, the only conclusion I am referring to above that we can draw is, it is a fact that we have the reports which are contained in the NT, and it is a fact that these reports have not been demonstrated to be either true, or false. Some folks acknowledge and accept this, while other folks continue to refer to things which have not been demonstrated, as if it were demonstrable fact.
We have tales of King Arthur and Robin Hood. This is a fact. But it is not the sort of fact that we can present as the beginning of belief in these characters. That is your mistake.
It is absolutely useless to compare these things, unless you can demonstrate how they would compare, and this is your mistake. In other words, you are not demonstrating that all these writings would be the same, simply by putting them in the same sentence.
I said,
realworldjack wrote:Now, I am sure you hold the opinion that the claims would be false, but the problem is, your opinion has not been demonstrated to be a fact.
To which you reply,
Nor has yours.
This has been my whole argument. The problem is, I do not make claims which I cannot demonstrate to be fact, while you continue to demonstrate a confusion between your opinion, as opposed to what can be demonstrated to be fact.
We are left with the problem of whether to accept walking corpses and a man walking on water and making water wine OR disbelieving these claims.
Here is an example, because this is not all we are left with in the least. Of course, I have no problem with those who think that it is just that simple, and choose to hold the opinion these things would be false, but opinions, do not demonstrate anything.
For you it seems a 50:50 choice.
No, because I understand that probabilities would have nothing to do with it.
For Reason, there is no choice - we reject the absurd.
Here is another example. You make the statement these things would be absurd, as if this would demonstrate they would be easily determined to be false, when the fact of the matter would be, these things have been debated for thousands of years now, with very well educated, and intelligent folks on both sides of the equations, who have written book volumes concerning the facts, and evidence we have, with none of these folks being able to demonstrate their case. I will assure you that these folks understand clearly that they cannot rest their case on simply referring to these things, as absurd.
a fact is something over which there is no debate about its being true or false.
Exactly! And it is a fact, that we have the reports. It is a fact that there is a reason we have the reports. It is a fact that we have those who have debated the reasons we have these reports for thousands of years. And it is a fact that the reports have not been demonstrated to be either true, or false.
When there is dubiety, we no longer have a fact.
My friend, I can demonstrate that I do not make claims which I cannot demonstrate to be fact. I can also demonstrate where you continue to make statements as if they would be fact, which you cannot demonstrate to be fact.
It is a fact we have stories; it is NOT a fact they are true.
Here is an example. The first part of your statement would be correct in that it would be a fact that we have the reports. However, it has not been determined as of yet, that the reports would not be fact. In other words, it may be a fact the reports would be fact, but this has not been demonstrated. Simply because something has not been demonstrated to be a fact, does not cause it not to be a fact, because a fact, would be a fact, whether it has been demonstrated to be a fact, or not.
Allow me to attempt to explain this in terms you may understand better. It may be a fact, that the reports in the NT are false. However, this has not been demonstrated to be a fact. If, and when it is demonstrated to be a fact, that the reports are indeed false, it would have been a fact that the reports were false all along.
So then, to correct your statement, "It is a fact we have stories, the stories may be fact, or they may be false, but they have not been demonstrated to be either fact, or false.
You may call them "rambling words" if you so choose. They are examples of biblical reports NOT in support of the theory that the bible offers truth but they are indications the bible sometimes presents us with nonsense.
First, you have not in any way demonstrated that what you refer to would be, "nonsense". However, even if you could demonstrate it to be "nonsense" it would not demonstrate in any way that the whole would be "nonsense" and does not even cause it to be likely. Again, you continue to throw your opinion out there, as if it would be some kind of proof?
I can understand that "no one you know has mentioned any of these things as evidence." That is because they give evidence in the opposite direction.
No! Rather, it would be because the things you refer to, would have nothing to do with the truth of the matter, unless they were demonstrated to be nonsense, which has not happened, but even then it would not demonstrate that the whole would be nonsense, because we all know that even liars report the truth at times. But again, the main point here is, you continue to refer to things as being fact, which you cannot demonstrate to be fact, while I never make claims which I cannot demonstrate to be fact.
Perhaps it is time to move away from the nebulous but factual Theophilus, the typical God lover addressed by the nebulous but factual Luke.
Fact: we have a book of stories. That's as far as fact takes us.
Right, and I have no problem with those who would like to stop right there. Of course, we do not have the time, and space to investigate all that would need to be investigated, but let's go just a little further.
It is a fact that those opposed clearly understand there are very good facts, and evidence in support of the claims in the NT, which does not bode very well for their case, which is exactly why they attempt to explain away these facts, and evidence we have.
As an example, those opposed clearly understand that we have very good facts, and evidence which would suggest that the author of the letters to Theophilus would have traveled with Paul. This evidence would include the fact that the author begins his second letter describing the actions of the Apostles in Jerusalem, only to begin to focus solely on the actions of Paul when the journeys of Paul begin, and does not mention the Apostles in Jerusalem until, or unless Paul comes back in contact with them again.
It would also include the fact that the author of the letters to Theophilus, ends his second letter with Paul being under arrest for some 2 years, and we have letters from Paul which would have been written while he would have been under arrest. It would also be a fact, that in one of the letters attributed to Paul, the author just so happens to mention that, all his other companions had left him, and "only Luke is with me". And of course, we have the fact that the author of the letters to Theophilus actually begins to use the words "we", and "us" when describing the events of the travels of Paul, as if he is there to witness the events.
Of course, those opposed understand very well, that this is not very good for their case, and so they are forced to attempt to explain away this evidence. One of the things they do in an attempt to explain away this evidence, is to refer to an ancient literary device which was used, and suggest that this author may have used this device, and had no intentions of being understood as traveling with Paul.
But you see, while this MAY explain the authors use of the words, "we", and "us", it has not been demonstrated that this would have been the case, and it does not explain the other evidence we have. So then, while those opposed cannot explain away all the evidence we have, another thing they do, is to question as to whether Paul would have actually been the author of all the letters which bear his name, and can you imagine one of the letters they choose to question? Well, of course you can, because it would just so happen to be the one in which the author just so happens to mention, "only Luke is with me". Imagine my surprise! Of course, they cannot demonstrate that Paul would not have been the author, but it is clear why they would have to question it.
But you see, we are not done yet. Because you see, with all this evidence suggesting the author may have traveled with Paul, those opposed also understand they have another problem, and it is the fact that the author of the letters to Theophilus addresses only one individual. This is not good, because if this author would have traveled with Paul, this would mean that after decades of traveling with Paul who ends under arrest, this author sits down to write, not one, but two long, and detailed letters to one individual, who would have already been a believer, demonstrating that the author would not have been motivated to write these letters in order to convince unbelievers, but rather would be evidence as the author actually says, that he was writing out of concern for this one individual.
Therefore, with this being the case, those opposed are forced to refer to the meaning of the name Theophilus, in order to suggest, (not demonstrate) that the author would have been addressing a wider audience. The problem here is, this cannot be demonstrated to be the case, and even if this would have been the intention, this still leaves with the fact that these letters, along with the overwhelming majority of what is contained in the NT, can be demonstrated as being addressed to particular audiences at the time, who would have already been believers.
All of the above clearly demonstrates, those opposed understand full well there are facts, and evidence in support of the claims, otherwise, why would any of this even matter? In other words, if these reports are so obviously false, then why would it matter if this author traveled with Paul, or addressed only one individual? I can tell you, it does in fact matter, and the fact that those opposed attempt to come up with alternative explanations demonstrates how much it matters.