"Now the chief priests and all the council sought testimony against Jesus to put him to death, but found none. For many bore false witness against him, but their testimonies did not agree." (Mark 14:55-56)
If the testimony of those witnesses was to be rejected because it didn't agree, how can anyone be blamed for rejecting the resurrection accounts in the gospels for the same reason?
Their witness does not agree
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Post #171
WHY WOULD THE DISCIPLES HAVE SOUGHT TO PREPARE FOR THE PASSOVER ON THE 13TH NISAN?
CONCLUSION It seems therefore the disciples were sent to prepare for the Passover (meal) on the 13th, a few hours before they were set to slaughter the Passover victim.
RELATED POSTS
- If the disciples arranged for the room, obtained provisions and organized everything in the late morning or afternoon of the 13th, they would be ready to slaughter, cook and eat the Passover victim that same evening after sundown. By Jesus time "Passover day" (ie the day the meal was eaten) had come to be generally considered as "the first day of the Festival of Unfermented Cakes".
That Jewish custom (see above) then allows for the question to have been asked of Jesus on 13th Nisan (ie during the daylight hours preceding that evening's festivities) is reflected in the original Greek , note the following...MATTHEW 26:17 On the first day of the Unleavened Bread, the disciples came to Jesus, saying: “Where do you want us to prepare for you to eat the Passover?
MARK 14:12
"Now on the first day of unfermented cakes, when they customarily sacrificed the passover victim"
LUKE 22:27
"The day of the unfermented cakes now arrived, on which the passover [victim] must be sacrificed"
him.
[u]Insight on the Scriptures Vol 'll p. 583[/u] wrote:Gr. word [protos] followed by the genitive case of the next word agrees with the sense and rendering of a like construction in Joh 1:15, 30, namely, he existed before [protos] me. According to Liddell and Scotts Greek-English Lexicon, [protos] is sts. [sometimes] used where we should expect [proteros (meaning former, earlier’)] Revised by H. Jones, Oxford, 1968, p. 1535
- NOTE The on Matthew 26:17 in the New World Translation says: “Or, ‘On the day before
.......======================= Nisan 13=========================>|| < ======== Nisan 14 ===============> .....
<---- "go and get the Passover ready..." ---- disciples prepare for passover--->|| SUNSET [slaughter/eat lamb ] ------ DAWN..
Late Morning ------------------------- Thursday 13th Nisan ------------- afternoon ------||[SUNSET]FRIDAY 14 OFFICIALLY BEGINS---->
CONCLUSION It seems therefore the disciples were sent to prepare for the Passover (meal) on the 13th, a few hours before they were set to slaughter the Passover victim.
RELATED POSTS
When were the disciples SENT to arrange for the Passover meal? [this post]
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 402#999402
Would Jesus disciples disciples have slaughtered the Passover lamb before evening?
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 328#999328
Last edited by JehovahsWitness on Sun Jun 19, 2022 5:03 pm, edited 2 times in total.
INDEX: More bible based ANSWERS
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681
"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681
"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8
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Post #172
Here are a few observations to put this in perspective:JehovahsWitness wrote:That Jewish custom (see above) then allows for the question to have been asked of Jesus on 13th Nisan (ie during the daylight hours preceding that evening's festivities) is reflected in the original Greek , note the following...
[u]Insight on the Scriptures Vol 'll p. 583[/u] wrote:Gr. word [proʹtos] followed by the genitive case of the next word agrees with the sense and rendering of a like construction in Joh 1:15, 30, namely, ‘he existed before [proʹtos] me.’� According to Liddell and Scott’s Greek-English Lexicon, “[proʹtos] is sts. [sometimes] used where we should expect [proʹte·ros (meaning ‘former, earlier’)].� Revised by H. Jones, Oxford, 1968, p. 1535
- John 1:15 and 30 are already discussing a combination of temporal sequence and primacy. In my opinion, John's wording is intentionally weird to make the specific point that Jesus both was (in an existential sense) before the Baptist and had primacy over him. That's two of the three times (out of more than 150) in the New Testament that the NASB translates a form of π�ῶτος as "before" rather than "beginning" or "first." I don't know where the other one is, so I'm not commenting on it.
- The original, unabridged version of the lexicon you cited expands the "sometimes" to actual references in Greek literature. The examples are in The Iliad, Herodotus, and Antigone. The latest of those predates the Bible and its Koine Greek by 400 years.
- As the lexicon notes, if the author meant "before," we should expect π�ότε�ος and not π�ῶτος
Post #173
Athetotheist wrote:You confirm that the first day of Unleavened Bread and the day of the killing of the Passover lamb were the same day, and that the day was Nisan 14.
Yes, I do confirm that…Yet, it must be remembered that the 14th of Nisan was a 24hr. period. Where, the Feast of UB began at the very start of the 14th. But, the killing of the lambs/goats did not begin until about 17 hours later! And, another 7 hours would have passed-by before the lambs were eaten.
Athetotheist wrote:However, you seem to keep overlooking the synoptics' other significant statement about Nisan 14: that it was also the day when Jesus sent his disciples to prepare the Passover for him to eat with them.
No, I don't believe that I'm overlooking anything. Luke records that the Feast of UB drew near, which is called the Passover (Luke 22:1). So, it should be clear that Luke is not referring to the Passover sacrifice meal and neither was Matthew or Mark. All three books were referring to the first evening meal of the Feast of UB, which did not include: a lamb or bitter herbs. Since, there is no dispute (except by conspiracy theories) that the Passover sacrifice meal was eaten on the beginning of the 15th of Nisan for thousands of years, the idea that the Christ ate a Passover sacrifice meal on the 15th of Nisan is disproved! Because, he died the same day the Passover sacrifices were being killed on the 14th of Nisan.
Therefore, since John 18:28-29 clearly states that this event (the Christ's trial and murder) had occurred on the 14th of Nisan and the three Synoptic gospels record the same event. They, as well, are supporting that the Christ came to Pilate, before the Passover sacrifices were eaten on the 15th of Nisan…
Athetotheist wrote:Jesus sent his disciples out on the 14th to prepare a meal which he would eat with them that night
No, this is incorrect! The Christ didn't send his two disciples on the 14th, he sent them on the 13th. This is supported in Matthew 26:2, Mark 14:1, Luke 22:1-2 and John 13:1-2.
Hence, I don't see any "reasonable" way around this! Where, the rebuttals are only opinions and don't agree with the records…So, where in the bible does the Christ claim that the process used, during the 1st century was in error? Because, if it was; he surely would have said so…
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Post #174
You're trying to render the word "protos" (first) in Mark and Matthew as meaning "before" [as in, before the first day of unleavened bread], but that theory breaks down when we read Luke. Luke definitely does not use the word "protos" to mean "before", because he doesn't use the word "protos" at all:JehovahsWitness wrote: WHY WOULD THE DISCIPLES HAVE SOUGHT TO PREPARE FOR THE PASSOVER ON THE 13TH NISAN?THE DAY BEFORE THAT EVENING'S FEAST
- If the disciples arranged for the room, obtained provisions and organized everything in the late morning or afternoon of the 13th, they would be ready to slaughter, cook and eat the Passover victim that same evening after sundown. By Jesus time "Passover day" (ie the day the meal was eaten) had come to be generally considered as "the first day of the Festival of Unfermented Cakes".
That Jewish custom (see above) then allows for the question to have been asked of Jesus on 13th Nisan (ie during the daylight hours preceding that evening's festivities) is reflected in the original Greek , note the following...MATTHEW 26:17 On the first day of the Unleavened Bread, the disciples came to Jesus, saying: “Where do you want us to prepare for you to eat the Passover?�
MARK 14:12
"Now on the first day of unfermented cakes, when they customarily sacrificed the passover victim"
LUKE 22:27
"The day of the unfermented cakes now arrived, on which the passover [victim] must be sacrificed"
him.
[u]Insight on the Scriptures Vol 'll p. 583[/u] wrote:Gr. word [proʹtos] followed by the genitive case of the next word agrees with the sense and rendering of a like construction in Joh 1:15, 30, namely, ‘he existed before [proʹtos] me.’� According to Liddell and Scott’s Greek-English Lexicon, “[proʹtos] is sts. [sometimes] used where we should expect [proʹte·ros (meaning ‘former, earlier’)].� Revised by H. Jones, Oxford, 1968, p. 1535
- NOTE The on Matthew 26:17 in the New World Translation says: “Or, ‘On the day before.’
.......======================= Nisan 13=========================>|| < ======== Nisan 14 ===============> .....
<---- "go and get the Passover ready..." ---- disciples prepare for passover--->|| SUNSET [slaughter/eat lamb ] ------ DAWN..Late Morning ------------------------- Thursday 13th Nisan ------------- afternoon ------||[SUNSET]FRIDAY 14 OFFICIALLY BEGINS---->
CONCLUSION It seems therefore the disciples were sent to prepare for the Passover (meal) on the 13th, a few hours before they were set to slaughter the Passover victim.
RELATED POSTS
When were the disciples SENT to arrange for the Passover meal? [this post]
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 402#999402
Would Jesus disciples disciples have slaughtered the Passover lamb before evening?
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 328#999328
Then (de) came (erchomai) the day (hemera) of unleavened bread (azymos) when (en hos) the passover (pascha) must (dei) be killed (thyos).
So it's fairly clear that Luke isn't referring to a day "before" anything, but simply to the first day of unleavened bread----the day when the passover had to be killed----and Jesus sent his disciples to prepare for the passover meal----the 14th.
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Post #175
Indeed, all Luke says is that the day arrived; which does not specifically exclude parts of the 13th.Athetotheist wrote:Luke ... doesn't use the word "protos" at all:
Notice STRONGS #2250 commentary for the greek word for DAY...LUKE 22:7
"The day of the unfermented cakes now arrived, on which the passover [victim] must be sacrificed"
Vines gives several possible definitions for HEMERA, one of which is ...DAY [gk HEMERA: ][literally daylight hours] or the whole ...24 hours (but several days were usually reckoned by the Jews as inclusive of the parts of both extremes); figuratively, a period (always defined more or less clearly by the context):--age, + alway, (mid-)day (by day, (-ly)), + for ever, judgment, (day) time, while, years.
Thus Luke introduces his narrative by telling us the main events of the festival, but his choice of words can certainly include parts of 13th Nisan.(d) a period of undefined length marked by certain characteristics
https://studybible.info/vines/Day
JW
To learn more please go to other posts related to ...
THE PASSOVER, THE MOSAIC LAW COVENANT and ... SABBATH KEEPING
Last edited by JehovahsWitness on Fri Jun 24, 2022 5:56 am, edited 1 time in total.
INDEX: More bible based ANSWERS
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681
"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681
"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8
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Post #176
"Always defined more or less clearly by the context...."JehovahsWitness wrote:Indeed, all Luke says is that the day arrived; which does not specifically exclude parts of the 13th.Athetotheist wrote:Luke ... doesn't use the word "protos" at all:
Notice STRONGS #2250 commentary for the greek word for DAY...LUKE 22:7
"The day of the unfermented cakes now arrived, on which the passover [victim] must be sacrificed"
Vines gives several possible definitions for HEMERA, one of which is ...DAY [gk HEMERA: ][literally daylight hours] or the whole ...24 hours (but several days were usually reckoned by the Jews as inclusive of the parts of both extremes); figuratively, a period (always defined more or less clearly by the context):--age, + alway, (mid-)day (by day, (-ly)), + for ever, judgment, (day) time, while, years.
Thus Luke introduces his narrative by telling us the main events of the festival, but his choice of words can certainly include parts of 13th Nisan.(d) a period of undefined length marked by certain characteristics
https://studybible.info/vines/Day
JW
Vines may give a general definition of a day, but Luke defines a specific day: the day of unleavened bread when the passover must be killed. And Luke claims in 1:3 to have "traced all things from the start with accuracy": "akribos" (meaning "exact", "accurate" or "diligent").
Post #177
[Replying to post 175 by Athetotheist]
The most important issue that seems to be overlooked (in this discussion) is the reality of the context. It is suggested that 3 of 4 gospels were first written in Hebrew, then all four translated into Greek, then Latin and finally English and other languages. Where, the truth is that we don't have any of the original writings available to cross check each other! We only have the interpretations of others…Hence, to imply that there can be no errors or mistranslations is unrealistic.
This seems to have occurred in Matthew 22:7…Where the Greek word "erchomai" (G2064) is translated "came" and means: to come or come. It can also be understood to mean: I am coming. Which, implies that it hasn't arrived yet! This also can be seen in the Latin Vulgar, where the translation can imply to "move nearer."
So, in cases like this one and others (the resurrection), we can't fully trust that the intent of the original writer has been properly conveyed. So, we must review all the available material that relates to the subject matter and not just focus on a few verses. It's kinda like putting a puzzle together, where the effort put forth can determine the understanding received…If, that is what one is looking for.
The most important issue that seems to be overlooked (in this discussion) is the reality of the context. It is suggested that 3 of 4 gospels were first written in Hebrew, then all four translated into Greek, then Latin and finally English and other languages. Where, the truth is that we don't have any of the original writings available to cross check each other! We only have the interpretations of others…Hence, to imply that there can be no errors or mistranslations is unrealistic.
This seems to have occurred in Matthew 22:7…Where the Greek word "erchomai" (G2064) is translated "came" and means: to come or come. It can also be understood to mean: I am coming. Which, implies that it hasn't arrived yet! This also can be seen in the Latin Vulgar, where the translation can imply to "move nearer."
So, in cases like this one and others (the resurrection), we can't fully trust that the intent of the original writer has been properly conveyed. So, we must review all the available material that relates to the subject matter and not just focus on a few verses. It's kinda like putting a puzzle together, where the effort put forth can determine the understanding received…If, that is what one is looking for.
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Post #178
Why inspire the original writings and not inspire the translations?FWI wrote: [Replying to post 175 by Athetotheist]
The most important issue that seems to be overlooked (in this discussion) is the reality of the context. It is suggested that 3 of 4 gospels were first written in Hebrew, then all four translated into Greek, then Latin and finally English and other languages. Where, the truth is that we don't have any of the original writings available to cross check each other! We only have the interpretations of others…Hence, to imply that there can be no errors or mistranslations is unrealistic.
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Post #179
That's the argument accepted by much of the "King James only" movement.Athetotheist wrote:Why inspire the original writings and not inspire the translations?
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Post #180
[Replying to post 175 by Athetotheist]
Yes context is vital which is why I have referenced my answers to the traditions of the day.
![Image](https://jehovahwitnessqhub.files.wordpress.com/2018/03/memorial.jpg)
HISTORY
Did the Israelites have an annual spring festival prior to the fist Passover?
viewtopic.php?p=1081966#p1081966
PASSOVER FESTIVAL PERIOD
PASSOVER MEAL ("SEDAR")
JEHOVAHS WITNESS MEMORIAL OF CHRIST'S DEATH?
Yes context is vital which is why I have referenced my answers to the traditions of the day.
![Image](https://jehovahwitnessqhub.files.wordpress.com/2018/03/memorial.jpg)
HISTORY
Did the Israelites have an annual spring festival prior to the fist Passover?
viewtopic.php?p=1081966#p1081966
PASSOVER FESTIVAL PERIOD
How was the Passover day calculated in Jesus day?
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 96#p911296
When was the Jewish PASSOVER?
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 32#p893932
When was the "day of preparation" ?
viewtopic.php?p=1082233#p1082233
When was "the first day of the Passover festival"?
viewtopic.php?p=1082286#p1082286
When was the festival of unleaven bread/cakes?
viewtopic.php?p=1082771#p1082771
Were the Passover (sedar) meal and 7 day temple festival REALLY on two different dates?
viewtopic.php?p=1082314#p1082314
Was the Passover (sedar) meal the ONLY religious (ceremonial) meal eaten during the Passover season?
viewtopic.php?p=1082290#p1082290
When did the Jewish calander depart from the biblical tradition?
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 62#p910962
When was the Sedar Passover meal moved from Nisan 14 to the 15th?
viewtopic.php?p=1083057#p1083057
For how long would Jews be obliged to keep the Passover?
viewtopic.php?p=1043389#p1043389
PASSOVER MEAL ("SEDAR")
JESUS LAST PASSOVERWhat TIME was the Passover victim to be slaughtered and eaten?
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 24#p894024
What time of day was the lamb slaughtered [Exodus 12:6]?
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 61#p894061
Where and by whom, was the Passover (Sedar) lamb sacrifices?
viewtopic.php?p=1082798#p1082798
Why do modern Jews eat the Seder meal on the 15th Nisan and not the 14th?
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 68#p894168
JOHN'S ACCOUNTWhat day did Jesus send his disciples out to prepare for the Passover evening meal (sedar)?
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 02#p999402
Could Luke 22:7 be read to mean the disciples prepared for the Passover meal on the 13th Nisan?
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 73#p999573
Would Jesus disciples disciples have slaughtered the Passover lamb before evening?
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 28#p999328
Did Jesus inaugorate his own memorial (with bread and wine) during the occassion of a Passover (sedar) meal?
viewtopic.php?p=1082977#p1082977
When (at what moment during the evening) did Jesus pass the bread and the wine?
viewtopic.php?p=1043181#p1043181
When was the "day of preparation" ?
viewtopic.php?p=1082233#p1082233
Does John 13:1 not indicate John's "evening meal" was BEFORE the Passover (Sedar) ?
viewtopic.php?p=1083018#p1083018
Was John's "evening meal" the (Sedar) PASSOVER meal of the Synoptics?
viewtopic.php?p=1082886#p1082886
Does JOHN 18:28 indicate at Jesus trial he had not yet eaten the sedar meal ?
viewtopic.php?p=1083033#p1083033
Does Johns employ of metonym mean he could not be referring to 15th Nisan at John 18:28? [eating a festival]
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 34#p998834
Were the Passover (sedar) meal and 7 day temple festival REALLY on two different dates?
viewtopic.php?p=1082314#p1082314
Was John being deliberately ambiguious with his time makers?
viewtopic.php?p=998858#p998858
JEHOVAHS WITNESS MEMORIAL OF CHRIST'S DEATH?
Why do most Jehovah's Witnesses not eat the bread or drink the wine at their memorial commemoration?
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 20#p961920
What are the aspects of the Passover that are valuable for a Christian to meditate on?
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 22#p961422
How is Jesus our "Passover"?
viewtopic.php?p=1071157#p1071157
Are Christians under obligation to observe the Jewish PASSOVER?
viewtopic.php?p=1042845#p1042845
To learn more please go to other posts related to ...
THE PASSOVER, THE MOSAIC LAW COVENANT and ... SABBATH KEEPING
Last edited by JehovahsWitness on Tue Jun 28, 2022 11:15 am, edited 32 times in total.
INDEX: More bible based ANSWERS
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681
"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681
"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8