How Is The Hypostatic Union Possible?

[HimWithin]

How can Jesus as one person be both fully human and fully divine?

[Mr E]

[Replying to JehovahsWitness in post #39]

Again, like many you are confusing being born as a human (being pushed out of a woman's womb after (usually) 9 months of gestation) with the process of being "born again" or spirit anointed. Just like Jesus, "born again" Christians, remain 100% human beings (they don't change to another life form) but they are "adopted" as sons of God meaning they are recognized by God as having received his promise to come and live with Him (God) in heaven after they die (faithful).

I'm not confused in the least.

Was Jesus "born again?" It's a simple question. Will you simply answer it?

[OneJack]

[Replying to JehovahsWitness in post #39]

Again, like many you are confusing being born as a human (being pushed out of a woman's womb after (usually) 9 months of gestation) with the process of being "born again" or spirit anointed. Just like Jesus, "born again" Christians, remain 100% human beings (they don't change to another life form) but they are "adopted" as sons of God meaning they are recognized by God as having received his promise to come and live with Him (God) in heaven after they die (faithful).

I'm not confused in the least.

Was Jesus "born again?" It's a simple question. Will you simply answer it?

The answer to your question is a big NO! Jesus is the Almighty God who shepherds and guides those who come to Him across all generations to be born anew to attain their salvation and eternal life [from Him].

[OneJack]

How can Jesus as one person be both fully human and fully divine?

Jesus is the Almighty God who dwelt in the flesh [of the Son of God] during His (Jesus’) incarnation; hence, the above premise is wrong!

[Capbook]

Jesus had acknowledged Himself as the "Son of man" and the "Son of God."
If Jesus as the "Son of man" means He was a man, why do the Scriptures explicitly write "Son of God" if it bears the same meaning as man?

Good question.

“Let this mind be in you which was also in Christ Jesus, who, although existing in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, but emptied Himself, by taking the form of a slave, by being made in the likeness of men.” (Phi 2:5-11)

If the person of the preincarnate Word existed with God in the beginning, and that same person emptied Himself of His deity and was later conceived by God in the human nature of man, then that person would be the Son of God by conception/begetting and the Son of man by birth, both in human form.

Let us dissect your quoted text: yes, the phrase "Christ Jesus existing in the form of God," just before He emptied Himself from that form of God, proves the "hypostatic union" exists.

How so?

And the word "emptied" bears Strong#G2758, in Greek "κενόω kenoō" defined by Bible Lexicon as 'to divest oneself of one's prerogatives, etc., ' which would mean that, by His own prerogative, He chooses to divest that power of God that need not be grasped, as the Word's God's nature who became Him never ceased as God.

If God's power had been divested, He would no longer be God, because God is never powerless.
The power of God is His divinity. The two cannot be separated. If His power is divested, it means His divinity is divested.

The OP is: How Is the Hypostatic Union Possible?
I believe the possibility already happened before Jesus divested the power of the Word that was God from the beginning; their "hypostatic union" exists.

[JehovahsWitness]

[Replying to JehovahsWitness in post #39]

Again, like many you are confusing being born as a human (being pushed out of a woman's womb after (usually) 9 months of gestation) with the process of being "born again" or spirit anointed. Just like Jesus, "born again" Christians, remain 100% human beings (they don't change to another life form) but they are "adopted" as sons of God meaning they are recognized by God as having received his promise to come and live with Him (God) in heaven after they die (faithful).

I'm not confused in the least.

Was Jesus "born again?" It's a simple question. Will you simply answer it?

yes he was "born again". The answer to your question is "yes".

[Mr E]

[Replying to JehovahsWitness in post #45]

yes he was "born again". The answer to your question is "yes".

It seems you and @OneJack are at odds on the question.

Again, like many you are confusing being born as a human (being pushed out of a woman's womb after (usually) 9 months of gestation) with the process of being "born again" or spirit anointed. Just like Jesus, "born again" Christians, remain 100% human beings (they don't change to another life form) but they are "adopted" as sons of God meaning they are recognized by God as having received his promise to come and live with Him (God) in heaven after they die (faithful).

But now you seem to be saying that he was born again as a human. You said of the word:

He was sent... to be born as a human.

By your own words, you seem to be saying that the word/spirit/son of God was sent to be born as a physical human (being pushed out of a woman's womb after 9 months). Most JW's think of Jesus being born again at his baptism-- do your beliefs differ?

[Mr E]

[Replying to Capbook in post #44]

The OP is: How Is the Hypostatic Union Possible?
I believe the possibility already happened before Jesus divested the power of the Word that was God from the beginning; their "hypostatic union" exists.

Hi Capbook- Are you saying that you believe this "hypostatic union" was the state before Jesus divested himself of this power-- ? You mean that Jesus was fully human and fully God in heaven, and then he divested himself of this power, and then he was born, and then he got the power back?

What are you trying to say? He was either fully human and fully God at the same time, or he wasn't both at the same time at any time.

In Philippians 2, where we read of this emptying himself (divesture?) that was before he took on the form of a servant (human) so where is this so called hypostatic state?

[JehovahsWitness]

But now you seem to be saying that he was born again as a human. You said of the word:

He was sent... to be born as a human.

By your own words, you seem to be saying that the word/spirit/son of God was sent to be born as a physical human (being pushed out of a woman's womb after 9 months). Most JW's think of Jesus being born again at his baptism-- do your beliefs differ?

Let's go over it again.

IMPORTANT Jesus as the WORD was never "born" he was CREATED.

POINT #1 Jesus as the Word was eventually BORN as a human. This was his first time being Born. This first birth involved being pushed out of a woman's womb. As THE WORD he was never "pushed out of any womb (when he lived in heaven) he was CREATED not born.

So far, how many births can you count above? (see point #1) Let's move on...

POINT #2 In John 3 Jesus spoke of another way to be "born" (Nicodemus was also initially confused, he asked "how can a grown man be born again?"). But this "other" way was not from a fleshly womb, through a fallopian tube. This OTHER way to be "born" was from "water" (baptism) and "spirit" (anointing). This is a way to be "born AGAIN". The word "again" means: once more / another time. So this second way to be born would be "again" or "once more".



NOTE Jesus said other humans after him would also be BORN AGAIN and go and live in his Father's house (in heaven) after being resurrected as spirits*
*spirits are like angels, intelligent spirit beings that can live in heaven

REVIEW QUESTIONS

(a) When Jesus was born as a human, was this his first or second time being born?
(a) When was Jesus "born again" (a second time)?
(a) What does it mean to be "born again"?

FURTHER READING What Does It Mean to Be Born Again? The Bible’s answer
https://www.jw.org/en/bible-teachings/q ... orn-again/

To learn more please go to other posts related to...

HEAVEN , BORN AGAIN and ... THE 144, 000

[HimWithin]

How can Jesus as one person be both fully human and fully divine?

Jesus is the Almighty God who dwelt in the flesh [of the Son of God] during His (Jesus’) incarnation;

Are you saying Jesus dwelt in Himself?

hence, the above premise is wrong!

Okay.

[HimWithin]

The OP is: How Is the Hypostatic Union Possible?
I believe the possibility already happened before Jesus divested the power of the Word that was God from the beginning; their "hypostatic union" exists.