This kind of statement is quite common in debates.
I have seen both atheists and theists argue in favor of and against there being only being relative and subjective morality.You(and your fellow theists)claim that there are absolute morals. Name one.
I can agree that there is nothing that can be said to be "absolutely and objectively moral". This is probably consistent with other atheists.
But I believe that there are things that can be said to be "absolutely and objectively immoral". This is inconsistent with both atheists and theists in discussions here in the past.
This topic therefore is about the existence of "absolute and object immorality".
Definitions
Dictionary.com lists 15 definitions for absolute. This is the one that contrasts with relative morality.
Absolute: viewed independently; not comparative or relative; ultimate; intrinsic.
Dictionary.com lists 11 defintitions for objective. This is the one that contrasts with subjective morality.
Objective: not influenced by personal feelings, interpretations, or prejudice; based on facts; unbiased: an objective opinion.
My Definition
This is roughly how I define something to be absolutely and objectively immoral (given the definitions above) - if I thought longer I could surely word it better, but here goes...
If an act is committed that causes suffering or harm, directly or indirectly, to a living thing, without any justifying or mitigating circumstances, it it can be considered immoral without considering it relative to anything else, and without taking into account the opinion of an observer.
It is therefore absolutely and objectively immoral.
Therefore if person A does something unjustified and unmitigated to harm person/animal/plant B...
...the level of harm relative to other acts that could be committed to harm B is not relevant in determining if the act is immoral or not, it is only relevant in determining how immoral it is, since B has nevertheless been harmed.
...the subjective opinion of person C is not relevant in determining if the act is immoral or not, it is only relevant in determining person C's opinion of the morality of the situation. Regardless of person C's opinion B has nevertheless been harmed. And if person C didn't have knowledge of the act the immorality of the act would remain unchanged.
An Example
I deliberately give an example here that is not about murder, rape, etc.
People are lined up to buy movie tickets. A person in line uses a lighter to burn the jacket of the person in front of him. The person with the burned jacket is upset. The person who burned the jacket in sane and can give no reason for committing the act.
The Debate
If you disagree that there are absolutely and objectively immoral acts argue against...
"There are Absolutely and Objectively Immoral Acts"