What is the correct way to interpret the Bible?

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Justin108
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What is the correct way to interpret the Bible?

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Post by Justin108 »

JehovahsWitness wrote: those that interpret the bible correctly will never find any of its statements contradict proven scientific fact.
What is the "correct" way to interpret the Bible? Is there an objective "correct" way to interpret the Bible? If so, what methods should one employ to interpret the Bible "correctly"?

Let's use Genesis 1 as an example. What is the correct interpretation of Genesis 1 and what method did you employ to conclude your interpretation?

Specifically...

1. Is Genesis 1 literal or metaphorical? (what method did you use to reach this conclusion?)

2. If it is metaphorical, what is it a metaphor for? (what method did you use to reach this conclusion?)

3. What is your explanation for the Genesis 1 claim that God created plants before he created the sun? (and again, what method did you use to reach this conclusion?)

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Re: What is the correct way to interpret the Bible?

Post #111

Post by RightReason »

[Replying to Justin108]
I think you should probably address points I made in post 93
Sorry, just felt like we were repeating, but youre right maybe it is good to summarize . . .

The only Christian book I care to consider is the Bible, and I see no mention of contraception being a sin. Your only defense is "people used to believe it is wrong". It's a terribly poor defense, I must say
Not my only defense. You arent paying attention. I demonstrated how we can know this via reading Scripture as a whole. Genesis shows Gods creation and plan for man and the importance and significance He placed on family and children. I showed His command, Be fruitful and multiply which was not amended. I showed how children are always seen as blessings in Scripture and bareness is seen as a curse. I posted the story of Onan and explained that it was indicating a command against contraception AND that that is what all Biblical scholars believed and taught as well. I also mentioned how we can know something is right/wrong via natural law. God designed the world and things have purpose/function. We can know the purpose/function of something via observation. It isnt rocket science to observe the unitive nature of the sexual act " it has both a procreative and pleasurable function " this unitive nature is inherent in the act. Anyway, my argument against contraception is based on Sacred Scripture, Sacred Tradition, natural law, and logic and reason.

The difference, of course, is that the Bible clearly condemns homosexuality.
You realize there are Christian denominations that would disagree with you. They would claim homosexuality and sodomy were condemned, but not committed same sex relationships. Or they would fall back on the, how or why could God be against love. Trust me, without unity of message and an authoritative Church humans can claim their own personal interpretation to Scripture.

Also, I have already demonstrated that it is my understanding and was the understanding of every Christian religion prior to 1930 that Scripture condemned contraception.
The same cannot be said for contraception. So it's a poor comparison. I can quote several passages, directly condemning homosexual acts. Can you do the same for contraception?
I provided more than that, because understanding Scripture isnt about quote mining. Its reading Scripture as a whole, understanding who God is, understanding this world we live in, mans relationship with God and this world we live in.

The difference is I can clearly point out where the U.S. government gives women the right to vote. I can point to the specific legislation. Can you please point me to where in Biblical law it states that contraception is a sin?
It was on the books of every Christian denomination until as late as 1930. Contraception was always morally condemned by Christendom.

How do you know what the people who saw and spoke to Jesus believed? Did Matthew ever write that contraception is a sin? Did John? Mark? Luke? Do you know of any other apostle who wrote that contraception is a sin?
They didnt have to. It was already understood from what all Gods chosen people would have already known about God, man, creation, children.
"Prior to the 20th century" is not the same as "during the first century". A lot can happen in 2000 years. I don't care what Martin Luther or John Calvin believed. You claimed the first Christians believed that contraception is a sin. Are Martin Luther and John Calvin the first Christians?

the Didache, a document from the second half of the first century or early second century. Didache reads: You shall not practice birth control, you shall not murder a child by abortion, nor kill what is begotten (2).


Tertullians Apology in 197, while he was still in union with the Church, says, In our case, murder being once for all forbidden, we may not destroy even the fetus in the womb, while as yet the human being derives blood from other parts of the body for its sustenance. To hinder a birth is merely a speedier man-killing; nor does it matter whether you take away a life that is born, or destroy one that is coming to the birth.

http://www.ncregister.com/daily-news/ab ... ch-fathers


Moreover, he [Moses] has rightly detested the weasel [Lev. 11:29]. For he means, "Thou shalt not be like to those whom we hear of as committing wickedness with the mouth with the body through uncleanness [orally consummated sex]; nor shalt thou be joined to those impure women who commit iniquity with the mouth with the body through uncleanness" (Letter of Barnabas 10:8 [A.D. 74]). Letter of Barnabas


Because of its divine institution for the propagation of man, the seed is not to be vainly ejaculated, nor is it to be damaged, nor is it to be wasted (The Instructor of Children 2:10:91:2 [A.D. 191]). Clement of Alexandria


To have coitus other than to procreate children is to do injury to nature (ibid. 2:10:95:3).

[Christian women with male concubines], on account of their prominent ancestry and great property, the so-called faithful want no children from slaves or lowborn commoners, they use drugs of sterility [oral contraceptives] or bind themselves tightly in order to expel a fetus which has already been engendered [abortion] (Refutation of All Heresies 9:7 [A.D. 225]). Hippolytus


[Some] complain of the scantiness of their means, and allege that they have not enough for bringing up more children, as though, in truth, their means were in [their] power . . . or God did not daily make the rich poor and the poor rich. Wherefore, if any one on any account of poverty shall be unable to bring up children, it is better to abstain from relations with his wife (Divine Institutes 6:20 [A.D. 307]). Lactantius

God gave us eyes not to see and desire pleasure, but to see acts to be performed for the needs of life; so too, the genital ['generating'] part of the body, as the name itself teaches, has been received by us for no other purpose than the generation of offspring (ibid. 6:23:18). Lactantius

They [certain Egyptian heretics] exercise genital acts, yet prevent the conceiving of children. Not in order to produce offspring, but to satisfy lust, are they eager for corruption (Medicine Chest Against Heresies 26:5:2 [A.D. 375]). Epiphanius


http://www.freerepublic.com/focus/f-rel ... 5564/posts
RightReason wrote:


I dont really care what you call it either " the terminology is your choice, but again the action/behavior is night and day and therefore NOT the same.

So you're going to ignore the definition of contraception then?
No, like I said your hung up on semantics. If you want to call NFP contraception, I dont care. Either way you are missing the point. If NFP is contraception then I would argue NFP is the only acceptable form of contraception as it does not separate the unitive nature of the sexual act. Again, it isnt what terminology we choose to label something. The comparison of skipping dessert vs vomiting it up demonstrates this. One is acceptable, even noble " it requires will power, discipline, does not harm the body, and is keeping with the proper order of things. The other is misuse/disordered/sinful. This argument applies for birth control/contraception as well.

Is that your argument? It is wrong because it is unnatural? How many unnatural things do you enjoy on a daily basis?
<sigh> Weve covered this. Not unnatural in an artificial or man made sense. It violates natural law " that which we know to be right/wrong via observation of the world based on recognizing form/function/purpose.


[qutoe]Doctors would rather perform invasive surgery than suggest bulimia.[/quote]

Yes, because we recognize the behavior is disordered.

And most rational people do not consider contraception to be disordered.

They did, but we have gotten so far from the truth that the truth is no longer recognized. This same thing can actually be demonstrated in the modeling industry. Many top models admit to practicing bulimia " for them it is justified and rationalized. They start out knowing it is wrong, hiding their behavior, etc, until they start doing it long enough and get too use to it becoming a way of life " they actually start to no longer believe it is wrong. Plus, they see that everyone does it so they again justify it must not be that bad. Soon it even becomes celebrated and supported and seen as just one more justified way to control weight.

A similar argument can be made with regards to birth control. Something that everyone knew to be wrong (just like sex outside of marriage or homosexuality) soon gradually became accepted and even disguised as right/good and the responsible thing to do. This rationalization of man does not make the thing actually right/good. As G. K. Chesterton said,

Men do not differ much about what things they will call evils; they differ enormously about what evils they will call excusable.

Is it always immoral to use something outside of it's "observed purpose"? Or does this only apply to contraception for some reason?
No, but most rational/reasonable people recognize it makes more sense to use something as it was intended vs. the opposite. I can use a screwdriver to pound in a nail, but everyone has to acknowledge that a hammer works better. There are reasons some things in this world have certain purposes/functions. I could have sex with my dog if I wanted, but it would be contrary to nature to do so. I could even think I love my dog and we make each other happy. Now one could stick up for the person who wants to have a relationship with their dog and say they have a right to do whatever makes them happy as long as no one else gets hurt, but I think that argument is false. Human beings are free to do whatever they want, even if they want to do something that isnt in their best interest, but that doesnt mean what theyre doing is right/good/acceptable and something others should support/encourage. Right/wrong and good/bad exists and something that through reason man can acknowledge and know.

The purpose for man regarding sex, marriage, and children is actually a very beautiful thing that I encourage people to study and learn more about. It values life. It recognizes the dignity of the human person, it prevents people using other people, it builds intimacy and love. To acknowledge this truth is freeing.

Why then would a man ever have sex with a woman on days when she is infertile? If the purpose of sex is to fertilize eggs, then surely we should only ever have sex on days we expect to fertilize eggs?
Because sex is fun. Its natural for human beings to have sexual feelings and if a couple is married, it is right and good that man acts on these feelings. What happens next is the natural course of our fertility. Nature even makes it less likely that the woman will conceive as she gets older. This makes sense. Nature also makes it less likely the woman will conceive if she is nursing a child. This too makes sense. Kinda cool the way nature kinda knows what it's doing. Did you also know a woman is more likely to desire sex when she's ovulating? Did you know a woman is less likely to desire sex when she's nursing? Fascinating stuff.
It's pretty cold outside. If I stepped outside, I would have to face the "natural consequences" of the cold. However, if I were to put on a jacket, I can counter these natural consequences. Putting on a jacket is certainly not natural.
Actually, it is natural that man take care of and protect his body so that it can function like it is supposed to. Putting on a coat then would be in keeping with what proper use of the body.

Putting on a condom blocks the natural function of the body.

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Re: What is the correct way to interpret the Bible?

Post #112

Post by Justin108 »

RightReason wrote:
The only Christian book I care to consider is the Bible, and I see no mention of contraception being a sin. Your only defense is "people used to believe it is wrong". It's a terribly poor defense, I must say
Not my only defense.
No but it's a defense you keep repeating. You keep appealing to "Christians used to believe this". If you would be so kind as to stop using this argument as I have adequately dismissed it as invalid.
RightReason wrote: You arent paying attention. I demonstrated how we can know this via reading Scripture as a whole.
Your demonstration relies on very selective interpretation. I keep asking for specific laws, not selective interpretations, that outright condemn contraceptions. There are very specific laws against eating pork, wearing mixed fabric, how to prepare a sacrifice, etc. Why is there not an equally specific law against contraception? The best you can offer are vague, selective interpretations.
RightReason wrote: Genesis shows Gods creation and plan for man and the importance and significance He placed on family and children.
Using contraception in no way makes family or children any less significant. People who use contraception often still have children. Your point is moot.
RightReason wrote: I showed His command, Be fruitful and multiply which was not amended
"Be fruitful and multiply" is not the same as "do not use contraception". People who use contraception often still have children. Some may choose to use contraception because they are not yet ready for children but intend to have children at a later point in life, or they may use contraception after already having had children.

"Be fruitful and multiply" simply means "have children". It does not mean every single instance of sex should be an attempt to have children. Again, your point is moot.
RightReason wrote:I showed how children are always seen as blessings in Scripture and bareness is seen as a curse.
Parents who use contraception continue to believe that the children they have are blessings. The use of contraception does not change this. The desire to not want more children in no way suggests that children are not a blessing. Once more, your point is moot.
RightReason wrote:I posted the story of Onan and explained that it was indicating a command against contraception
I refuted the story of Onan. Did you bother reading my response? If so, why do you insist on bringing it up again?
RightReason wrote: AND that that is what all Biblical scholars believed and taught as well.
This is irrelevant. These Biblical scholars are not beyond question. If you suggest that contraception is a sin because Biblical scholars say so, then you are committing the fallacy of appealing to authority. "This is true because this person says so" is never a good argument.
RightReason wrote:I also mentioned how we can know something is right/wrong via natural law.
As with the Onan story, I also refuted this argument. You cannot claim that something is immoral simply because it is unnatural as people enjoy unnatural things on a daily basis. Clothes are unnatural, electronics are unnatural, motor vehicles are unnatural... Are all of these things sin?
RightReason wrote:God designed the world and things have purpose/function. We can know the purpose/function of something via observation.
I already addressed this...
RightReason wrote: Anyway, my argument against contraception is based on Sacred Scripture, Sacred Tradition, natural law, and logic and reason.
I refuted every single one of your arguments.
RightReason wrote:
The difference, of course, is that the Bible clearly condemns homosexuality.
You realize there are Christian denominations that would disagree with you.
I don't care
RightReason wrote: They would claim homosexuality and sodomy were condemned, but not committed same sex relationships.
Leviticus directly condemns homosexuality. Can you give me a verse that is at the very least as direct as Leviticus 20:13? I don't want vague interpretations of "God said be fruitful and multiply", I want direct commands to not use contraception. Leviticus 20:13 is a direct command against homosexuality. What direct command against contraception can you offer?
RightReason wrote: Or they would fall back on the, how or why could God be against love. Trust me, without unity of message and an authoritative Church humans can claim their own personal interpretation to Scripture.
You do realize that the "Church" is a collection of humans, right?
RightReason wrote:Also, I have already demonstrated that it is my understanding and was the understanding of every Christian religion prior to 1930 that Scripture condemned contraception.
I have repeatedly explained why this is a pointless argument. This argument is what is known as an appeal to tradition. It's a logical fallacy.
https://www.logicallyfallacious.com/too ... -Tradition
RightReason wrote:
The same cannot be said for contraception. So it's a poor comparison. I can quote several passages, directly condemning homosexual acts. Can you do the same for contraception?
I provided more than that, because understanding Scripture isnt about quote mining. Its reading Scripture as a whole, understanding who God is, understanding this world we live in, mans relationship with God and this world we live in.
I'll take that as an admission of your inability to provide the requested scripture.
RightReason wrote:
The difference is I can clearly point out where the U.S. government gives women the right to vote. I can point to the specific legislation. Can you please point me to where in Biblical law it states that contraception is a sin?
It was on the books of every Christian denomination until as late as 1930. Contraception was always morally condemned by Christendom.
As already mentioned, I don't care about any Christian book other than the Bible. The "Christian books" you are referring to are nothing but the opinions of various Christians. I am not interested in their opinion, I am interested in what the Bible says. And the Bible says absolutely nothing about contraception.
RightReason wrote:
"Prior to the 20th century" is not the same as "during the first century". A lot can happen in 2000 years. I don't care what Martin Luther or John Calvin believed. You claimed the first Christians believed that contraception is a sin. Are Martin Luther and John Calvin the first Christians?
the Didache, a document from the second half of the first century or early second century. Didache reads: You shall not practice birth control, you shall not murder a child by abortion, nor kill what is begotten (2).
Why is the Didache not part of the Bible?
RightReason wrote: Tertullians Apology in 197, while he was still in union with the Church
Two things.

First, 197 is not during Jesus' life, therefore it is not part of "the first Christians.

Secondly, "while he is still in union with the Church"? Did he later leave the Church?
RightReason wrote: says, In our case, murder being once for all forbidden, we may not destroy even the fetus in the womb, while as yet the human being derives blood from other parts of the body for its sustenance. To hinder a birth is merely a speedier man-killing; nor does it matter whether you take away a life that is born, or destroy one that is coming to the birth.
This is an argument against abortion, not contraception.
RightReason wrote: Moreover, he [Moses] has rightly detested the weasel [Lev. 11:29]. For he means, "Thou shalt not be like to those whom we hear of as committing wickedness with the mouth with the body through uncleanness [orally consummated sex]
I don't know what you quoted, but it isn't Leviticus 11:29

Leviticus 11:29 These also shall be unclean unto you among the creeping things that creep upon the earth; the weasel, and the mouse, and the tortoise after his kind

Perhaps I used the wrong translation? Help me out here.
RightReason wrote: nor shalt thou be joined to those impure women who commit iniquity with the mouth with the body through uncleanness" (Letter of Barnabas 10:8 [A.D. 74]). Letter of Barnabas
Oh I see, you were quoting the Letter of Barnabas. Why is the Letter of Barnabas not in the Bible?
RightReason wrote: Because of its divine institution for the propagation of man, the seed is not to be vainly ejaculated, nor is it to be damaged, nor is it to be wasted (The Instructor of Children 2:10:91:2 [A.D. 191]). Clement of Alexandria
191 A.D is not "the first Christians"
RightReason wrote: To have coitus other than to procreate children is to do injury to nature (ibid. 2:10:95:3).
So women who have sex during infertile days of their cycle are committing an injury to nature?
RightReason wrote:[Christian women with male concubines], on account of their prominent ancestry and great property, the so-called faithful want no children from slaves or lowborn commoners, they use drugs of sterility [oral contraceptives] or bind themselves tightly in order to expel a fetus which has already been engendered [abortion] (Refutation of All Heresies 9:7 [A.D. 225]). Hippolytus
225 A.D is not "the first Christians"
RightReason wrote: [Some] complain of the scantiness of their means, and allege that they have not enough for bringing up more children, as though, in truth, their means were in [their] power . . . or God did not daily make the rich poor and the poor rich. Wherefore, if any one on any account of poverty shall be unable to bring up children, it is better to abstain from relations with his wife (Divine Institutes 6:20 [A.D. 307]). Lactantius
307 A.D... I'm sure you get the point by now.
RightReason wrote: God gave us eyes not to see and desire pleasure, but to see acts to be performed for the needs of life; so too, the genital ['generating'] part of the body, as the name itself teaches, has been received by us for no other purpose than the generation of offspring (ibid. 6:23:18). Lactantius
1. Then why do some women have sex during infertile days of their cycle?
2. Why is Lactantius not part of the Bible?
3. Was this written by the first Christians? In what year was this written?
RightReason wrote: They [certain Egyptian heretics] exercise genital acts, yet prevent the conceiving of children. Not in order to produce offspring, but to satisfy lust, are they eager for corruption (Medicine Chest Against Heresies 26:5:2 [A.D. 375]). Epiphanius
375 A.D
RightReason wrote:
So you're going to ignore the definition of contraception then?
No, like I said your hung up on semantics.
You call it semantics, I call it definition.
RightReason wrote: The other is misuse/disordered/sinful. This argument applies for birth control/contraception as well.
You claim it is a misuse, disorder, and sinful but you have yet to demonstrate why.
RightReason wrote:
Is that your argument? It is wrong because it is unnatural? How many unnatural things do you enjoy on a daily basis?
<sigh> Weve covered this. Not unnatural in an artificial or man made sense. It violates natural law " that which we know to be right/wrong via observation of the world based on recognizing form/function/purpose.
What is the form, function and purpose of sand? Is it immoral to disregard this form, function and purpose when we use it to make glass?

- From a physics standpoint, it is physically impossible to break a law of nature. From a physics standpoint, no law is broken from contraception.
- From a Biblical standpoint, there is no law against contraception. From a Biblical standpoint, no law is broken from contraception.
RightReason wrote:
Doctors would rather perform invasive surgery than suggest bulimia.
Yes, because we recognize the behavior is disordered.
Yet people do not recognize contraception as disordered... well except for Catholics.
RightReason wrote: They did, but we have gotten so far from the truth that the truth is no longer recognized.
Please demonstrate why what you believe is "the truth".
RightReason wrote: A similar argument can be made with regards to birth control. Something that everyone knew to be wrong...
Something everyone *thought was wrong...

Fixed that for you.
RightReason wrote:
Is it always immoral to use something outside of it's "observed purpose"? Or does this only apply to contraception for some reason?
No, but most rational/reasonable people recognize it makes more sense to use something as it was intended vs. the opposite.
Then why do most rational people not find anything wrong with contraception? Or are only Catholics "rational people"?
RightReason wrote:I can use a screwdriver to pound in a nail, but everyone has to acknowledge that a hammer works better.
Regardless of whether it works better, no one is going to claim that it is a sin to use a screwdriver to pound in a nail. You might argue that it makes more sense to use sex for children, but that doesn't mean that it is a sin to use sex for other purposes.
RightReason wrote:
Why then would a man ever have sex with a woman on days when she is infertile? If the purpose of sex is to fertilize eggs, then surely we should only ever have sex on days we expect to fertilize eggs?
Because sex is fun.

So you agree that it is ok to have sex even if your purpose is not to have children? If it is acceptable to take steps to prevent the sperm from fertilizing an egg (such as only having sex on infertile days), why is it not ok to take steps to prevent the sperm from entering the woman?
RightReason wrote: Its natural for human beings to have sexual feelings and if a couple is married, it is right and good that man acts on these feelings. What happens next is the natural course of our fertility. Nature even makes it less likely that the woman will conceive as she gets older. This makes sense. Nature also makes it less likely the woman will conceive if she is nursing a child. This too makes sense. Kinda cool the way nature kinda knows what it's doing.

And sometimes, man takes a few steps to help nature out. That is why we take medicine when we are sick, that is why we use vaccines... and that is why we use birth control. Why is it ok to use medicine and vaccines but it's not ok to use birth control? Why is one pill/injection ok but the other isn't? Both are equally unnatural.
RightReason wrote:
It's pretty cold outside. If I stepped outside, I would have to face the "natural consequences" of the cold. However, if I were to put on a jacket, I can counter these natural consequences. Putting on a jacket is certainly not natural.
Actually, it is natural that man take care of and protect his body so that it can function like it is supposed to. Putting on a coat then would be in keeping with what proper use of the body.
How do you determine what is natural for a tiger? By observing a tiger. How do you determine what is natural for man? By observing man. There are countless examples of man throughout history using contraception. Ergo, it is natural for man to use contraception.
RightReason wrote: Putting on a condom blocks the natural function of the body.
As does circumcision, yet I doubt you have a problem with that? What is less natural? Temporarily putting a piece of latex over your penis? Or permanently cutting a piece of your penis off?

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Did they use the term "birth control " in the Dida

Post #113

Post by polonius »

RightReason quoted
the Didache, a document from the second half of the first century or early second century. Didache reads: You shall not practice birth control, you shall not murder a child by abortion, nor kill what is begotten (2).
QUESTION:
The Didache reads: You shall not practice birth control???????????

Really? Since birth control was not a term used in the first or second century, Id be interested where you got what you stated in quotation marks.

This may be a spurious quotation perhaps posted by Catholic fundamentalists. You didnt get it from something like the National Catholic Register or something did you, without verifying your quotation? :-s

Perhaps readers should look more closely what you are quoting. :?

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Re: Did they use the term "birth control " in the

Post #114

Post by Justin108 »

polonius.advice wrote: RightReason quoted
the Didache, a document from the second half of the first century or early second century. Didache reads: You shall not practice birth control, you shall not murder a child by abortion, nor kill what is begotten (2).
QUESTION:
The Didache reads: You shall not practice birth control???????????

Really? Since birth control was not a term used in the first or second century, Id be interested where you got what you stated in quotation marks.

This may be a spurious quotation perhaps posted by Catholic fundamentalists. You didnt get it from something like the National Catholic Register or something did you, without verifying your quotation? :-s

Perhaps readers should look more closely what you are quoting. :?
You are absolutely right.

'Many translations read practice sorcery because the Greek word sometimes has that meaning (see Wisdom 12:4, Galatians 5:20, Revelation 18:23). However, it also means practice medicine or use poison, and the term may refer to contraceptive measures, as is the case in a number of the following texts.

Another early text is the Epistle of Barnabas: You shall not slay the child by procuring abortion, nor shall you destroy it after it is born (19). This also shows that the earliest Christians forbade abortion.'

http://www.ncregister.com/daily-news/ab ... ch-fathers


At best you can argue that the Didache is a ban on abortion. The obvious distinction between abortion and contraception, of course, is that contraception prevents pregnancy whereas abortion terminates pregnancy.

And just to point out, I got this from the ncregister. That is the New Catholic Register, before anyone accuses me of using biased sources.

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The National Catholic Reporter's article

Post #115

Post by polonius »

Right Reason posted:

"You shall not practice birth control, you shall not murder a child by abortion, nor kill what is begotten (2). [Supposedly from the Didache.}

RESPONSE:

Indeed, the Register posted:

The earliest reference to contraception and abortion is in the Didache, a document from the second half of the first century or early second century. Didache reads: You shall not practice birth control, you shall not murder a child by abortion, nor kill what is begotten (2).

Jesuit Father Mitch Pacwa is the host of EWTN Live and Threshold of Hope on EWTN. He is president of Ignatius Productions.

The Register's print edition is published (bi-weekly, 26 times a year) and owned by EWTN NEWS, Inc.[1][2] Tom Wehner has been the managing editor since 2009. Jeanette DeMelo became editor in chief in 2012.

Here is the correct translation of chapter 2 of the Didache

Chapter 2. The Second Commandment: Grave Sin Forbidden. And the second commandment of the Teaching; You shall not commit murder, you shall not commit adultery, you shall not commit pederasty, you shall not commit fornication, you shall not steal, you shall not practice magic, you shall not practice witchcraft, you shall not murder a child by abortion nor kill that which is born.

Right Reason then posted:
And just to point out, I got this from the ncregister. That is the New Catholic Register, before anyone accuses me of using biased sources.
RESPONSE: Rather obviously the NCR article misquotes the Didache. Perhaps, observing this obvious mistranslation, you might want to switch to a more liable Catholic newspaper than EWTNs publication.

Might I suggest the National Catholic Reporter?

Perhaps too you would want to write Fr. Pacwa at EWTN and see what his explanation is (if any) and if he can find any reference to birth control in early Church writings.

Finally, Yes, birth control and abortion are entirely different matters.

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Re: The National Catholic Reporter's article

Post #116

Post by rikuoamero »

[Replying to post 115 by polonius.advice]
Right Reason then posted:

Quote:
And just to point out, I got this from the ncregister. That is the New Catholic Register, before anyone accuses me of using biased sources.
It was actually Justin108 who said that, not Right Reason.
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Oops, Wrong writer.

Post #117

Post by polonius »

Quote:
Right Reason then posted:

Quote:
And just to point out, I got this from the ncregister. That is the New Catholic Register, before anyone accuses me of using biased sources.


It was actually Justin108 who said that, not Right Reason.

RESPONSE: Thanks for the heads up. With so many posts, I sometimes mix up the writers.

My appologies to both Right Reason and Justin108. I'll try to be more careful! :?

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Re: What is the correct way to interpret the Bible?

Post #118

Post by RightReason »

[Replying to Justin108]



No but it's a defense you keep repeating. You keep appealing to "Christians used to believe this". If you would be so kind as to stop using this argument as I have adequately dismissed it as invalid.
The argument isnt Christians used to believe this The argument is what the early Church thought, believed, and taught IS significant. They themselves might have lived when Christ lived. Or at least were getting a more first hand testimony of Christs teachings. The fact that the early Church, Biblical scholars, historians, and all of Christendom believed and taught the immorality of contraception up until the 1930s IS significant. Im not saying just because some used to believe something then it must be true. Im saying those closer to eye witness accounts and testimony of Christ Himself and the first Christians are more likely to get the message correct. Im also showing that all of Christendom who were privy to the same public revelation and Sacred Scripture that we are today all concluded that Scripture condemned contraception.

Now what I would like to know is what changed? What changed in 1930 to cause some Christian denominations to change their teachings that had been in the books for over 1000 years? Was there new Revelation from God? Was there some new Scripture that previously had been missing? Was there some addendum I am unaware of? What new insight did those after 1930 have that those before didnt? Otherwise your argument amounts to nothing more then most Christians today dont think contraception is immoral, therefore contraception isnt immoral.

The early Church, even Jewish scholars, taught the story of Onan in Scripture referred to the sin of contraception. So, why in 1930 did it no longer?



Your demonstration relies on very selective interpretation

Ha, ha, ha . . . I could say the same about yours.
I keep asking for specific laws, not selective interpretations, that outright condemn contraceptions.
But that isnt how one is to read Scripture. I keep telling you Scripture is to be read as a whole and since Scripture itself tells us that Christ said there was much more He wanted to tell us, we can conclude Scripture is not the whole picture. This is also why I continue to argue why Christ left us His Church and told us to listen to her. If there is uncertainty about something, we are to take it to the Church. Paul told us to heed to what has been passed onto us, whether what is written down or by word of mouth. This shows there is no need for Scripture to spell out some specific law to know whether contraception is moral or immoral. Remember too, Scripture did not come first " the Church came first. So, am I to believe stealing and murder were not wrong until the Church compiled the Bible? Or am I to believe a person could not know the wrongness of stealing and murder without prior to or without Scripture?




Using contraception in no way makes family or children any less significant.
This is your opinion. There are arguments to be made to the contrary. Like it or not, contraception says something about a relationship. It says at least one of the spouses does not want all that the other has to offer. Whether they realize it or not, this can affect how spouses treat one another. There are studies that show couples that use contraception are less likely to take responsibility when the contraception fails. They can fall back on the notion that they did not want children or plan children and did what they could so this is not their fault. Using contraception can affect how we see children. A contracepting society sees children as a liability, burdens, mistakes, and problems that need to be controlled. This overall worldview reaches into all aspects of life with an overall devaluing of human life. If the contraception fails, then why not abortion since weve already convinced ourselves having a child right now is a bad idea. The argument can be made when people in general are not valued, this leads to other bad and immoral societal decisions " abortion, pornography, oppression, eugenics, euthanasia, etc.

"Be fruitful and multiply" simply means "have children".
Really? Is that what it means. And children? Not child? So, everyone should have at least 2 children to fulfill Gods command?

With your line of reasoning, wouldnt God have specifically commanded, All married couples should have at two children Is that the kind of specific command you are looking for in Scripture?
It does not mean every single instance of sex should be an attempt to have children.
Again, I never said this and yet you keep repeating it. No one has to attempt anything. If you engage in the marital act, just dont do anything to stop/block the consequences of the act.

Parents who use contraception continue to believe that the children they have are blessings. The use of contraception does not change this. The desire to not want more children in no way suggests that children are not a blessing. Once more, your point is moot.
If a couple truly saw children as a blessing, who wouldnt want more blessings? One can never have too many blessings.


I refuted the story of Onan.
You did no such thing.
Did you bother reading my response?
Did you read mine? I demonstrated evidence from Scripture that Onans sin was not simply disobedience and that we could know that for a number of reasons. And every Christian denomination as well as our Jewish brothers and sisters agrees with my interpretation. That was until 1930, when some created their new revisionist theology to better justify their new lifestyle choices. Hmmm . . . sounds a little sketch.

This is irrelevant. These Biblical scholars are not beyond question. If you suggest that contraception is a sin because Biblical scholars say so, then you are committing the fallacy of appealing to authority. "This is true because this person says so" is never a good argument.
Im appealing to the fact that all the experts in the field, those who knew Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek, and were familiar with expression and language of the period in which it was spoke, and spent their entire lives studying the Bible and co existing historical records, and early writings all unanimously agreed upon that one could conclude from Scripture that the use of contraception was immoral. In a court of law, we bring in the expert witnesses. Their testimony has greater weight than that of a lay person. I wouldnt call that irrelevant.

RightReason wrote:

I also mentioned how we can know something is right/wrong via natural law.

As with the Onan story, I also refuted this argument. You cannot claim that something is immoral simply because it is unnatural as people enjoy unnatural things on a daily basis. Clothes are unnatural, electronics are unnatural, motor vehicles are unnatural... Are all of these things sin?
I continue trying to explain to you that the unnatural you are referring to is not the natural in natural law. Please do yourself a favor and learn the difference.

**********************
What Is Consistent with the Natural Law Is Right and What Is not in keeping with the Natural Law Is Wrong .
NOTE: This is NOT what is natural is morally correct and what is unnatural is morally wrong. The focus is on the natural LAWS and not simply natural acts. Natural Law Theory supports doing unnatural deeds such as surgery for the sake of realizing a restoration of health and the prolongation of human life which are each consistent with the natural drives of organisms: survival.

In this view humans have reasoning and the Laws of Nature are discernable by human reason. Thus, humans are morally obliged to use their reasoning to discern what the laws are and then to act in conformity with them.
Humans have a natural drive to eat, drink, sleep and procreate. These actions are in accord with a natural law for species to survive and procreate. Thus activities in conformity with such a law are morally good. Activities that work against that law are morally wrong.
http://www2.sunysuffolk.edu/pecorip/SCC ... Theory.htm


A natural law or precept, accordingly, signifies what is necessary or expedient for one of our natural ends. What are the natural ends of human beings? They are the goods that perfect our nature, the goods we are made for, the goods our nature craves even before we make particular choices: goods such as life, family, education, friendship, political community, truth.

https://www.thecatholicthing.org/2015/0 ... tural-law/


Anyway, my argument against contraception is based on Sacred Scripture, Sacred Tradition, natural law, and logic and reason.

I refuted every single one of your arguments.
Ha, ha, ha . . . sorry just choked a little on my diet Dr. Pepper.



Quote:
The difference, of course, is that the Bible clearly condemns homosexuality.


You realize there are Christian denominations that would disagree with you.

I don't care
Ok, but why should we accept your interpretation of Scripture? They have come to a different conclusion. Yet another example of Tams holding something to the light of Christ can be a bit confusing and problematic.

RightReason wrote:


They would claim homosexuality and sodomy were condemned, but not committed same sex relationships.

Leviticus directly condemns homosexuality.
You believe this and even I believe this, but believe it or not, (as I have had this very argument with fellow Christians) they claim it was not faithful same sex relationships that Leviticus was condemning. Some even try to argue the word for homosexuality in Scripture did not refer to same sex relations, rather the term then meant man-boy or pederasty and that Scripture then was forbidden things like pedophilia and male prostitution.

So, like I said, not all agree with what you think as very clear. Bummer, huh?


RightReason wrote:


Quote:
The same cannot be said for contraception. So it's a poor comparison. I can quote several passages, directly condemning homosexual acts. Can you do the same for contraception?

I provided more than that, because understanding Scripture isnt about quote mining. Its reading Scripture as a whole, understanding who God is, understanding this world we live in, mans relationship with God and this world we live in.

I'll take that as an admission of your inability to provide the requested scripture.
You take it wrong then. I question your way to understand and interpret Scripture, because not only did I provide lots of Scripture to support my belief, I also demonstrated non Scriptural support. And I demonstrated logic and reason " always a good thing.

I am not interested in their opinion, I am interested in what the Bible says.
Ok, but any good Biblical scholar or those trying to fully understand Scripture refer to other writings and historical evidence. We cant know what the Bible says if we dont also have knowledge of the time, the culture, the language, the expression. Also, the Bible doesnt speak. As G.K. Chesterton said, you cant put the Bible on the witness stand.

And I am skipping all your comments about the early Church writings I included indicating evidence that the first Christians believed in the immorality of contraception because you fail to understand these writings can show evidence that the early Church did believe exactly that. And 100 and 200 A.D. are actually still pretty close to when Christ lived and they certainly should still be considered the first Christians and early Church. And Im not asking you to accept these things as the word of God. I am simply showing you that there is record and evidence for the teaching and belief, which I recall is what you asked (you asked if there is any evidence that the first Christians believed contraception was immoral). And I gave you historical accounts.






What is the form, function and purpose of sand? Is it immoral to disregard this form, function and purpose when we use it to make glass?

No, because sand, like wood, is a natural resource and as observed in the world can be used for a variety of purposes. But again you seem to misunderstand what is meant by natural law. Pleas, please educate your self.




Yet people do not recognize contraception as disordered... well except for Catholics.
Really? Try all of Christendom and Judaism until 1930. Ill ask you again " what changed?



Regardless of whether it works better, no one is going to claim that it is a sin to use a screwdriver to pound in a nail. You might argue that it makes more sense to use sex for children, but that doesn't mean that it is a sin to use sex for other purposes.
Actually, man in his wisdom recognizes what is right and good based on what makes the most sense. That actually is what is meant by natural law. There is an old saying . . .

God always forgives.
Man sometimes forgives.
Nature never forgives.

When we violate natural law, there are consequences. It isnt a punishment from God. It is simply the way the world works. It is in mans best interest to live in accordance with natural law.





So you agree that it is ok to have sex even if your purpose is not to have children? If it is acceptable to take steps to prevent the sperm from fertilizing an egg (such as only having sex on infertile days), why is it not ok to take steps to prevent the sperm from entering the woman?
Because you arent stopping/blocking the sperm from fertilizing the egg in abstinence. You arent having sex! If you do engage in the marital act " then dont do anything to stop/block the natural end of the act you just engaged in!!!




And sometimes, man takes a few steps to help nature out.
Yes, medicine is good to help the body get back on track to doing what it is suppose to be doing. Contraception on the other hand stops the body from doing what it is suppose to be doing!
Why is one pill/injection ok but the other isn't? Both are equally unnatural.
Gaaaaaaaah! It isnt whether something is unnatural as in man made or artificial. Please look up natural law.

RightReason wrote:


Quote:
It's pretty cold outside. If I stepped outside, I would have to face the "natural consequences" of the cold. However, if I were to put on a jacket, I can counter these natural consequences. Putting on a jacket is certainly not natural.


Actually, it is natural that man take care of and protect his body so that it can function like it is supposed to. Putting on a coat then would be in keeping with what proper use of the body.

How do you determine what is natural for a tiger? By observing a tiger. How do you determine what is natural for man? By observing man. There are countless examples of man throughout history using contraception. Ergo, it is natural for man to use contraception.
With your own line of reasoning then you cant say same sex relations are a sin. There exist practicing homosexuals in the world, therefore same sex relations are ok?

There exists pedophiles, therefore pedophilia is moral?

Yeah, no.

RightReason wrote:


Putting on a condom blocks the natural function of the body.

As does circumcision, yet I doubt you have a problem with that?
How does circumcision block the natural function of the body? Can the man still pee? Can he still have an erection? No natural function blocked. That said, I think circumcision completely unnecessary and there is no medical reason for doing so. Neither my husband nor any of my sons are circumcised.

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Re: What is the correct way to interpret the Bible?

Post #119

Post by tam »

RightReason wrote: [Replying to tam]
So this is not written in that book?

"I am the Truth, the Way and the Life." John 14:6


Not only does the book testify to this, but Christ is the One who said that HE is the Truth.


How in the world can you take issue with that? He said it Himself!
I do not take issue with that. You only see what you want to see.

This was your comment:
To be clear though, the book does not say that IT is the truth. The book says that Christ is the Truth.
And I was correctly pointing out the book ALSO says the Church is the pillar of foundation of truth. You overlook that bit of very important information.
And this was your comment,

Actually the book says the pillar and foundation of truth is the Church.
Usually when someone says 'actually' as you did above, they are correcting something.

So you are clarifying then that there was nothing to correct from what I said? Yes?
But I think you demonstrate the difference between following and bearing witness to a religion versus following and bearing witness to Christ.

I put Christ and His word first. Here you have put Paul first, and instead of seeking to understand what Paul meant according to what Christ taught FIRST (testing Paul's words against Christ, the Light), you take away from Christ.
Who told you to test things by the light of Christ? Oh, that would be Paul!!!!!!!
Christ taught me to test the inspired expression and He told me how to do that.

Could you post the verse from Paul saying to do this?

You dont get to pick and choose which parts of Scripture you think are more important and which parts you want to accept and which you dont.


By scripture, you mean the entire Bible, right? Yes, I do get to pick and choose which parts of the Bible are more important. I'm not even picking and choosing, per se; just following my Lord. And if my Lord is the Truth; the Word of God; the Image of God; the Son of God; the Chosen One of Jah (MischaJAH) - and He is these things - then obviously, anything from Him is more important than anything from Paul (or any other person). Do you think Paul would have argued otherwise?
Scripture is to be read as a whole. Thats what I am doing in arriving at the conclusion that Christ established His Church, which was described in Scripture as the pillar and foundation of truth.


Or maybe what you should be doing is listening to Christ first and foremost, as God said to do, and testing everything against Christ? I mean, did Christ ever say, look to the scriptures as a whole to know the truth? And did God say, these are the scriptures, that I have chosen, listen to them?

Or did Christ say this:

"I am the Truth."

"Come to me, all you who are weary and burdened, and I will give you rest. Take my yoke upon you and learn from me; for I am gentle and humble in heart, and you will find rest for your souls. For my yoke is easy and my burden is light.



Note my Lord's words:

"Learn from me."


As God said:

"This is my Son, whom I have chosen. Listen to Him."

But how many people who profess Christ as Lord, listen instead to men, to religion, to the "Bible as a whole"... instead of to Christ, first and foremost; too often even OVER Christ and His word?

None of those other things are the Truth. None of those other things lead one into all truth, or are even the means by which one comes to God.

"No one comes to Father except through the Son." (note that my Lord does not say, except through the "church" or except through the 'scriptures as a whole', etc).
It is amazing to me how much that bothers you. You dismiss it, not realizing you are contradicting yourself. If you truly believe Christ is the Truth, then you would accept His command when He told us to listen to His Church


Perhaps you did not read post 104, because I responded to what you keep claiming is His command. He never said what your religion claims He said. What you claim doesn't even make sense... considering that I am the Church; as is every member of the Body of Christ, of whom Christ is the HEAD.

For the husband is head of the wife, just as Christ is the head of the church, His body, of which He is the Savior. Ephesians 5:24



Peace again to you,
your servant and a slave of Christ,
tammy

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Re: What is the correct way to interpret the Bible?

Post #120

Post by Justin108 »

RightReason wrote:
No but it's a defense you keep repeating. You keep appealing to "Christians used to believe this". If you would be so kind as to stop using this argument as I have adequately dismissed it as invalid.
The argument isnt Christians used to believe this The argument is what the early Church thought, believed, and taught IS significant. They themselves might have lived when Christ lived.
"Might have" is not enough.
RightReason wrote: Or at least were getting a more first hand testimony of Christs teachings.
What's more first hand than the Bible? If Jesus taught contraception is a sin first hand, he would have mentioned as much in the Bible. Not through all of the arguments you brought up as they have already been refuted, but as a direct teaching. Jesus would have said contraception was a sin. If not Jesus, then Leviticus. It makes no sense for the Bible to directly tell us homosexuality or eating bacon is a sin, but feel the need to be so discreet about contraception. Give me one good reason there is no direct law against contraception? And I stress the word "direct".
RightReason wrote: Otherwise your argument amounts to nothing more then most Christians today dont think contraception is immoral, therefore contraception isnt immoral.
No, my argument amounts to "there is no law against it in the Bible". Your argument is a fallacy cocktail of appeal to tradition and popularity. "These people interpreted it that way, so it must be true"
RightReason wrote: The early Church, even Jewish scholars, taught the story of Onan in Scripture referred to the sin of contraception. So, why in 1930 did it no longer?
I don't know. And I don't care. All I can do is speculate, but I won't even bother because, as mentioned before, this is an appeal to tradition and popularity. Your argument is a mixture of two logical fallacies.
RightReason wrote:
Your demonstration relies on very selective interpretation
Ha, ha, ha . . . I could say the same about yours.
Leviticus 20:13
"'If a man has sexual relations with a man as one does with a woman, both of them have done what is detestable. They are to be put to death; their blood will be on their own heads.


How much interpretation is needed to conclude from this verse that homosexuality is a sin? Not much. Compare that with the amount of interpretation needed to conclude that contraception is a sin.
RightReason wrote:
I keep asking for specific laws, not selective interpretations, that outright condemn contraceptions.
But that isnt how one is to read Scripture. I keep telling you Scripture is to be read as a whole
Then explain why the same scripture is so precise about some sins (homosexuality) yet so insanely vague about contraception? In fact I cannot think of a sin that is as vague as contraception (assuming for argument sake contraception is a sin). I can, at the drop of a hat, find a verse that specifically condemns murder, theft, adultery, homosexuality, blasphemy, false witness... any sin you can think of, I can easily pull up a verse and say "this is where it states that this is a sin". I don't need to read the entire Bible in order to prove that murder is a sin. I don't need to read the entire Bible in order to prove theft is a sin. There are clear, non-vague verses that without debate point to these things being sins. Why is this not the case for contraception? Why is the Bible so vague about contraception yet so clear about other sins? Name one other sin that is as vague as contraception? Name one other sin that is not accompanied by a specific verse, spelling out the fact that it's a sin?
RightReason wrote: This shows there is no need for Scripture to spell out some specific law to know whether contraception is moral or immoral.
Name one other law that is not spelled out in scripture?
RightReason wrote:
Using contraception in no way makes family or children any less significant.
This is your opinion.
And how is your claim that contraception makes family less significant not just your opinion?
RightReason wrote: There are arguments to be made to the contrary.
Such as?
RightReason wrote: Like it or not, contraception says something about a relationship.
Yes. It says we are not ready to have (more) kids.
RightReason wrote: It says at least one of the spouses does not want all that the other has to offer.
Suppose instead of using contraception, they use abstinence instead. How is that any different? Is abstinence not also an indication that at least one of the spouses does not want all the other has to offer?

Spouse 1: I'm offering sex
Spouse 2: no thanks
RightReason wrote: Whether they realize it or not, this can affect how spouses treat one another. There are studies that show couples that use contraception are less likely to take responsibility when the contraception fails. They can fall back on the notion that they did not want children or plan children and did what they could so this is not their fault.
Then the sin is to not take responsibility. The sin is not contraception. Blaming contraception for one's lack of responsibility is like blaming alcohol for drunk driving. Is drinking alcohol a sin because some people drive drunk?
RightReason wrote: Using contraception can affect how we see children. A contracepting society sees children as a liability, burdens, mistakes, and problems that need to be controlled.
As a member of the "contracepting society" I can confirm that this is simply not true. You are not part of the "contracepting society" so how would you know what we think?
RightReason wrote: This overall worldview reaches into all aspects of life with an overall devaluing of human life. If the contraception fails, then why not abortion since weve already convinced ourselves having a child right now is a bad idea. The argument can be made when people in general are not valued, this leads to other bad and immoral societal decisions " abortion, pornography, oppression, eugenics, euthanasia, etc.
The slippery slope argument. Another logical fallacy to add to your collection. "Kissing is wrong because kissing leads to sex which leads to more sex which leads to orgies which leads to prostitution which leads to the spread of AIDS, therefore kissing should be banned"
RightReason wrote:
"Be fruitful and multiply" simply means "have children".
Really? Is that what it means. And children? Not child? So, everyone should have at least 2 children to fulfill Gods command?

With your line of reasoning, wouldnt God have specifically commanded, All married couples should have at two children Is that the kind of specific command you are looking for in Scripture?
This interpretation makes a hell of a lot more sense than yours. But no. The verse can be interpreted as a command to the human race as a whole, so as long as the human race is multiplying, this command is being fulfilled.

Now that your attempt to distract the issue has failed, please explain how "be fruitful and multiply" means "don't use contraception"?
RightReason wrote:
It does not mean every single instance of sex should be an attempt to have children.
Again, I never said this and yet you keep repeating it. No one has to attempt anything. If you engage in the marital act, just dont do anything to stop/block the consequences of the act.
Why not?
RightReason wrote:
Parents who use contraception continue to believe that the children they have are blessings. The use of contraception does not change this. The desire to not want more children in no way suggests that children are not a blessing. Once more, your point is moot.
If a couple truly saw children as a blessing, who wouldnt want more blessings? One can never have too many blessings.
So a couple who chooses to be abstinent to avoid pregnancy don't see children as a blessing? People who use NFP to avoid pregnancy don't see children as a blessing?
RightReason wrote:
I refuted the story of Onan.
You did no such thing.
Please point out a flaw in my interpretation of the story of Onan?
RightReason wrote:
Did you bother reading my response?
Did you read mine? I demonstrated evidence from Scripture that Onans sin was not simply disobedience and that we could know that for a number of reasons.
I must have missed it. Can you repeat your number of reasons?
RightReason wrote:And every Christian denomination as well as our Jewish brothers and sisters agrees with my interpretation. That was until 1930, when some created their new revisionist theology to better justify their new lifestyle choices. Hmmm . . . sounds a little sketch.
Appeal to tradition and popularity. Are you going to keep using these fallacies? You understand what a fallacy is, right?
RightReason wrote:
This is irrelevant. These Biblical scholars are not beyond question. If you suggest that contraception is a sin because Biblical scholars say so, then you are committing the fallacy of appealing to authority. "This is true because this person says so" is never a good argument.
Im appealing to the fact that all the experts in the field, those who knew Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek, and were familiar with expression and language of the period in which it was spoke, and spent their entire lives studying the Bible and co existing historical records, and early writings all unanimously agreed upon that one could conclude from Scripture that the use of contraception was immoral. In a court of law, we bring in the expert witnesses. Their testimony has greater weight than that of a lay person. I wouldnt call that irrelevant.
Added to your list of fallacies is an appeal to authority. How many fallacies is that now?
- appeal to tradition
- appeal to popularity
- appeal to authority
- slippery slope fallacy

I can probably add non sequitur and red herring to the list, but at least those aren't as blatant.
RightReason wrote: Humans have a natural drive to eat, drink, sleep and procreate. These actions are in accord with a natural law for species to survive and procreate. Thus activities in conformity with such a law are morally good. Activities that work against that law are morally wrong.
If I chose to rape a woman, can I appeal to the "natural drive to procreate" to justify my action? It is, after all, in conformity with natural law and therefore morally good.
RightReason wrote:
Anyway, my argument against contraception is based on Sacred Scripture, Sacred Tradition, natural law, and logic and reason.

I refuted every single one of your arguments.
Ha, ha, ha . . . sorry just choked a little on my diet Dr. Pepper.
Are you ok? As I was saying, I refuted every single one of your arguments.
RightReason wrote: Ok, but why should we accept your interpretation of Scripture?
As explained, it does not require extensive interpretation to conclude that murder, theft, homosexuality, etc. are sins. For some unknown reason, contraception seems to be the only "sin" that requires extensive interpretation. Why is that?
RightReason wrote: Yet another example of Tams holding something to the light of Christ can be a bit confusing and problematic.
What does tam have to do with our debate?
RightReason wrote:
Leviticus directly condemns homosexuality.
You believe this and even I believe this, but believe it or not, (as I have had this very argument with fellow Christians) they claim it was not faithful same sex relationships that Leviticus was condemning. Some even try to argue the word for homosexuality in Scripture did not refer to same sex relations, rather the term then meant man-boy or pederasty and that Scripture then was forbidden things like pedophilia and male prostitution.

So, like I said, not all agree with what you think as very clear. Bummer, huh?
People have to make an effort to turn homosexuality from a sin to not-a-sin. Reading Leviticus verbatim concludes that homosexuality is a sin. With enough creative effort, one can turn this into not-a-sin.

Similarly, people have to make an effort to turn contraception from not-a-sin to a sin. Reading scripture verbatim, there is no condemnation of contraception. With enough creative effort, one can turn this into a sin (as you did).

Do you see the parallel? Your effort to turn contraception into a sin is no different from the effort to turn homosexuality into not-a-sin. My interpretation does not rely on these kinds of efforts.
RightReason wrote: You take it wrong then. I question your way to understand and interpret Scripture, because not only did I provide lots of Scripture to support my belief, I also demonstrated non Scriptural support. And I demonstrated logic and reason " always a good thing.
For every one of your Scriptural arguments, I gave you a rebuttal. If you intend to argue Scripture further, you will need to refute my rebuttals.

Regarding non-scriptural support: I don't care. I don't care what Jews used to believe or what Christians in the 30's used to believe. I care what the Bible says and the Bible says nothing about scripture.

Lastly, your logical arguments: The flaw here is that your personal reasoning is not law. I can personally reason why I don't think homosexuality is wrong, but my personal reasoning would not change the fact that the Bible clearly condemns it. You might think contraception is wrong, but that doesn't mean that God thinks contraception is wrong.
RightReason wrote:
I am not interested in their opinion, I am interested in what the Bible says.
Ok, but any good Biblical scholar or those trying to fully understand Scripture refer to other writings and historical evidence. We cant know what the Bible says if we dont also have knowledge of the time, the culture, the language, the expression. Also, the Bible doesnt speak. As G.K. Chesterton said, you cant put the Bible on the witness stand.

And I am skipping all your comments about the early Church writings I included indicating evidence that the first Christians believed in the immorality of contraception because you fail to understand these writings can show evidence that the early Church did believe exactly that.
Why is there no direct law against it in the Bible? Can you please just explain that? God thought it important to spell out that we shouldn't mix fabrics, but he hid the law against contraception in bits and pieces throughout the Bible?
RightReason wrote: And 100 and 200 A.D. are actually still pretty close to when Christ lived and they certainly should still be considered the first Christians and early Church.
Yes but they didn't get this as a first hand instruction from Jesus. That's my point. If they did not get it directly from Jesus and they did not get it from the Bible, so why should we listen to them?
RightReason wrote:And Im not asking you to accept these things as the word of God. I am simply showing you that there is record and evidence for the teaching and belief, which I recall is what you asked (you asked if there is any evidence that the first Christians believed contraception was immoral). And I gave you historical accounts.
Yes. The first Christians. Not the early Christians.
RightReason wrote:
What is the form, function and purpose of sand? Is it immoral to disregard this form, function and purpose when we use it to make glass?
No, because sand, like wood, is a natural resource and as observed in the world can be used for a variety of purposes.
Can be used? So it's okay to use something for how it can be used, not necessarily for what its intended purpose is?
RightReason wrote:
Yet people do not recognize contraception as disordered... well except for Catholics.
Really? Try all of Christendom and Judaism until 1930. Ill ask you again " what changed?
I don't know. And I don't care. This is an appeal to tradition.
RightReason wrote:
Regardless of whether it works better, no one is going to claim that it is a sin to use a screwdriver to pound in a nail. You might argue that it makes more sense to use sex for children, but that doesn't mean that it is a sin to use sex for other purposes.
Actually, man in his wisdom recognizes what is right and good based on what makes the most sense.
I am a man, and in my wisdom I recognize that there is nothing wrong with contraception. This is true for most people today. Is every non-Catholic, in your opinion, unwise by default?
RightReason wrote:
So you agree that it is ok to have sex even if your purpose is not to have children? If it is acceptable to take steps to prevent the sperm from fertilizing an egg (such as only having sex on infertile days), why is it not ok to take steps to prevent the sperm from entering the woman?
Because you arent stopping/blocking the sperm from fertilizing the egg in abstinence.
What is wrong with stopping/blocking sperm? If you have sex on infertile days, you are stopping/blocking sperm from fertilizing eggs because you made a point of only having sex when the eggs aren't ready to be fertilized.

Suppose your son was skipping school. One day, you confront him about it and he says "I don't skip school, I go to school on Saturdays and Sundays". What's the point of going to school on Saturdays and Sundays when there is no one to teach him? Similarly, what use is there in having sex on infertile days when there are no eggs to fertilize?
RightReason wrote:You arent having sex!
You are. Specifically on infertile days.
RightReason wrote: If you do engage in the marital act " then dont do anything to stop/block the natural end of the act you just engaged in!!!
Why not?
RightReason wrote:
And sometimes, man takes a few steps to help nature out.
Yes, medicine is good to help the body get back on track to doing what it is suppose to be doing. Contraception on the other hand stops the body from doing what it is suppose to be doing!
Are you against the use of anesthetics? The body is "supposed" to feel pain. Anesthetics block pain. It stops the body from doing what it is supposed to be doing. Does that mean that anesthetics is immoral?
RightReason wrote:
How do you determine what is natural for a tiger? By observing a tiger. How do you determine what is natural for man? By observing man. There are countless examples of man throughout history using contraception. Ergo, it is natural for man to use contraception.
With your own line of reasoning then you cant say same sex relations are a sin.
I can. By pointing to a very precise Biblical verse stating that homosexuality is a sin. I personally do not believe it is immoral. I am an atheist. But according to scripture, it is a sin. From this it is clear that our own reasoning is irrelevant. All that is relevant is what the Bible says. In which case, all your talk about "natural law" is also irrelevant. Your personal reasoning for why you think contraception is a sin is just as invalid as my personal reasoning for why homosexuality is not immoral when it comes to what is sin to God. The rational next step then is to abandon our own personal reasoning and go back to investigating what the Bible says. Can you please point me to where the Bible directly condemns contraception?
RightReason wrote:
Putting on a condom blocks the natural function of the body.

As does circumcision, yet I doubt you have a problem with that?
How does circumcision block the natural function of the body?
The foreskin protects the nerve endings on the head of the penis. Cutting off the foreskin results in insensitivity and reduced sexual pleasure. The natural function of the foreskin is protecting the penis. So why would we cut it off?
RightReason wrote:Can the man still pee? Can he still have an erection?
Yes. Similarly, a man can still pee and get an erection if he wears a condom from time to time.
RightReason wrote: That said, I think circumcision completely unnecessary and there is no medical reason for doing so. Neither my husband nor any of my sons are circumcised.
Yes but you don't think it's immoral.

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