Equality between the Father and Son

[placebofactor]

Did the Father have the power to raise or elevate his Son Jesus to the same rank as himself? Let us call the highest rank in heaven "the rank of God."

Hebrews 1:8, The Father said of his Son Jesus, "Your throne, O God, is for ever and ever: A sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of your kingdom." Verse 9, "Therefore God, even your God, has anointed you with the oil of Gladness above thy fellows." Verse 10, "And thou LORD (the Father calling his Son Jehovah), in the beginning has laid the foundation of the earth: and the heavens are the works of your hands."

And is there the same degree of likeness, similarity, and dignity between the Father and Son? If so, then the Son can be called God because it's the Father's prerogative. And if it is the Father's privilege, who are we to deny it?

[OneJack]

[Replying to Capbook in post #140]

Do you mean that Jesus is not the Christ?

Jesus is the Christ, thats why the term Jesus Christ.

The speaker is Jesus from verse 1 to verse 5, Whom Jesus said "Father glorify Me together with Yourself." Can one person be together with Himself?

The real speaker was Jesus, but it was delivered to the Jews through the Son. No one from the Jews knew it was Jesus or the Father who spoke to them, seeing the man named-Jesus uttered those words.

And why Jesus as the name of the fleshly "Son of God", was with the Father with glory before the world existed?

Joh 17:5 And now You, Father, glorify Me together with Yourself, with the glory which I had with You before the world existed.

Things like that can only be clarified from the Living Christ.

[Capbook]

The speaker is Jesus from verse 1 to verse 5, Whom Jesus said "Father glorify Me together with Yourself." Can one person be together with Himself?

The real speaker was Jesus, but it was delivered to the Jews through the Son. No one from the Jews knew it was Jesus or the Father who spoke to them, seeing the man named-Jesus uttered those words.

If the real speaker is Jesus, do Jesus commit mistake when He utter the word "together" with the Father?

Joh 17:5 "Now, Father, glorify Me together with Yourself, with the glory which I had with You before the world was.

And why Jesus as the name of the fleshly "Son of God", was with the Father with glory before the world existed?

Joh 17:5 And now You, Father, glorify Me together with Yourself, with the glory which I had with You before the world existed.

Things like that can only be clarified from the Living Christ.

Jesus statement is simple and clear, He had the glory with the Father before the world existed. That would mean, Jesus already existed before He was named as "Jesus" in the New Testament. Clear that He has no flesh at that time as He had that glory with the Father before the world existed.

[placebofactor]

The speaker is Jesus from verse 1 to verse 5, Whom Jesus said "Father glorify Me together with Yourself." Can one person be together with Himself?

The real speaker was Jesus, but it was delivered to the Jews through the Son. No one from the Jews knew it was Jesus or the Father who spoke to them, seeing the man named-Jesus uttered those words.

If the real speaker is Jesus, do Jesus commit mistake when He utter the word "together" with the Father?

Joh 17:5 "Now, Father, glorify Me together with Yourself, with the glory which I had with You before the world was.

And why Jesus as the name of the fleshly "Son of God", was with the Father with glory before the world existed?

Joh 17:5 And now You, Father, glorify Me together with Yourself, with the glory which I had with You before the world existed.

Things like that can only be clarified from the Living Christ.

Jesus statement is simple and clear, He had the glory with the Father before the world existed. That would mean, Jesus already existed before He was named as "Jesus" in the New Testament. Clear that He has no flesh at that time as He had that glory with the Father before the world existed.

The prophet Micah wrote around 700 B.C., Micah 5:2, But thou, Bethlehem Ephratah, thou be little among the thousands of Judah, yet out of you shall he come forth unto me that is to be ruler in Israel: whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting.
Micah identifies the Messiahs birthplace: Bethlehem, the city of David, and attributes eternal origins to this coming ruler, from everlasting, thus supporting his preexistence, a concept later tied to Jesus divine nature (John 1:1"14).

[OneJack]

The speaker is Jesus from verse 1 to verse 5, Whom Jesus said "Father glorify Me together with Yourself." Can one person be together with Himself?

The real speaker was Jesus, but it was delivered to the Jews through the Son. No one from the Jews knew it was Jesus or the Father who spoke to them, seeing the man named-Jesus uttered those words.

If the real speaker is Jesus, do Jesus commit mistake when He utter the word "together" with the Father?

Joh 17:5 "Now, Father, glorify Me together with Yourself, with the glory which I had with You before the world was.

And why Jesus as the name of the fleshly "Son of God", was with the Father with glory before the world existed?

Joh 17:5 And now You, Father, glorify Me together with Yourself, with the glory which I had with You before the world existed.

Things like that can only be clarified from the Living Christ.

Jesus statement is simple and clear, He had the glory with the Father before the world existed. That would mean, Jesus already existed before He was named as "Jesus" in the New Testament. Clear that He has no flesh at that time as He had that glory with the Father before the world existed.

The prophet Micah wrote around 700 B.C., Micah 5:2, But thou, Bethlehem Ephratah, thou be little among the thousands of Judah, yet out of you shall he come forth unto me that is to be ruler in Israel: whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting.
Micah identifies the Messiahs birthplace: Bethlehem, the city of David, and attributes eternal origins to this coming ruler, from everlasting, thus supporting his preexistence, a concept later tied to Jesus divine nature (John 1:1"14).

Jesus Christ is the Almighty God, as He declared to the Jews by and through the Son of God.

John 5:46. For had ye believed Moses, ye would have believed me; for he wrote of me.

John 8:56. Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day: and he saw it, and was glad.

John 8:58. Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am.

[placebofactor]

The speaker is Jesus from verse 1 to verse 5, Whom Jesus said "Father glorify Me together with Yourself." Can one person be together with Himself?

The real speaker was Jesus, but it was delivered to the Jews through the Son. No one from the Jews knew it was Jesus or the Father who spoke to them, seeing the man named-Jesus uttered those words.

If the real speaker is Jesus, do Jesus commit mistake when He utter the word "together" with the Father?

Joh 17:5 "Now, Father, glorify Me together with Yourself, with the glory which I had with You before the world was.

And why Jesus as the name of the fleshly "Son of God", was with the Father with glory before the world existed?

Joh 17:5 And now You, Father, glorify Me together with Yourself, with the glory which I had with You before the world existed.

Things like that can only be clarified from the Living Christ.

Jesus statement is simple and clear, He had the glory with the Father before the world existed. That would mean, Jesus already existed before He was named as "Jesus" in the New Testament. Clear that He has no flesh at that time as He had that glory with the Father before the world existed.

The prophet Micah wrote around 700 B.C., Micah 5:2, But thou, Bethlehem Ephratah, thou be little among the thousands of Judah, yet out of you shall he come forth unto me that is to be ruler in Israel: whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting.
Micah identifies the Messiahs birthplace: Bethlehem, the city of David, and attributes eternal origins to this coming ruler, from everlasting, thus supporting his preexistence, a concept later tied to Jesus divine nature (John 1:1"14).

Jesus Christ is the Almighty God, as He declared to the Jews by and through the Son of God.

John 5:46. For had ye believed Moses, ye would have believed me; for he wrote of me.

John 8:56. Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day: and he saw it, and was glad.

John 8:58. Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am.

This one statement of yours, "Jesus Christ is the Almighty God, as He declared to the Jews by and through the Son of God.

Jesus is the Christ (King and High Priest); He is the Almighty, and he is the Son of God, all to the glory of His Father.

[OneJack]

[Replying to placebofactor in post #145]

Jesus Christ is the name of the Father that the Son declared to the Jews (John 17:3, 26). But unknown to the Jews, the Father, whose name is Jesus (isaiah 7:14; 9:6; Matt 1:21) was in the Son, and so was the Son in the Father hence the Father was the Spirit and Life that was in the Son (John 14:10-11) during the apostles time. Therefore, the real scenario then was - the Father (Jesus Christ), through the Son, did His works, turned water into wine, healed the sick man at the patio of the temple, and raised Lazarus from the dead.

[Capbook]

[Replying to placebofactor in post #145]

Jesus Christ is the name of the Father that the Son declared to the Jews (John 17:3, 26). But unknown to the Jews, the Father, whose name is Jesus (isaiah 7:14; 9:6; Matt 1:21) was in the Son, and so was the Son in the Father hence the Father was the Spirit and Life that was in the Son (John 14:10-11) during the apostles time. Therefore, the real scenario then was - the Father (Jesus Christ), through the Son, did His works, turned water into wine, healed the sick man at the patio of the temple, and raised Lazarus from the dead.

If Jesus Christ is the name of the Father, then Whose name is the Tetragrammaton?
Did you read the mind of the Jews? That you know and the Jews do not?
How would the physical body of Jesus be in the Father?
Or the only explanation is that the Father is in Jesus again?

[OneJack]

[Replying to Capbook in post #147]

If Jesus Christ is the name of the Father, then Whose name is the Tetragrammaton?

YHWH is also the Father’s name in other language.

Did you read the mind of the Jews? That you know and the Jews do not?

If they knew from the start, they wouldn’t crucify to death the Living Christ Jesus, by and through the Son.

How would the physical body of Jesus be in the Father?

What shape and description of the Father could you cite for us to visualize the Father?

Or the only explanation is that the Father is in Jesus again?

This is the norm that the Son uttered in John 14:10 - ‘the Father is in me, and I in the Father,’ unless you want to change that…

[Capbook]

YHWH is also the Father’s name in other language.

I believe there's only one personal name of the Father?(Exo 15:3, Deut 6:4) And nothing in the Bible that the Father's name is Jesus.

Exo 15:3  “יהוה is a man of battle, יהוה is His Name. 
Deu 6:4  “Hear, O Yisra’ěl: יהוה our Elohim, יהוה is one!

If they knew from the start, they wouldn’t crucify to death the Living Christ Jesus, by and through the Son.

They've studied the Scriptures, it was written, they know but they just don't believe.(Isa 7:14)

Isa 7:14  “Therefore the Lord Himself will give you a sign: Behold, the virgin will conceive and give birth to a son, and she will name Him Immanuel. 

Or the only explanation is that the Father is in Jesus again?

This is the norm that the Son uttered in John 14:10 - ‘the Father is in me, and I in the Father,’ unless you want to change that…

I won't change that, but you'll changed the interpretation of " I in the Father" again as, " the Father is in Me"? True or not?

[placebofactor]

Did the Father have the power to raise or elevate his Son Jesus to the same rank as himself? Let us call the highest rank in heaven "the rank of God."

Hebrews 1:8, The Father said of his Son Jesus, "Your throne, O God, is for ever and ever: A sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of your kingdom." Verse 9, "Therefore God, even your God, has anointed you with the oil of Gladness above thy fellows." Verse 10, "And thou LORD (the Father calling his Son Jehovah), in the beginning has laid the foundation of the earth: and the heavens are the works of your hands."

And is there the same degree of likeness, similarity, and dignity between the Father and Son? If so, then the Son can be called God because it's the Father's prerogative. And if it is the Father's privilege, who are we to deny it?

That is not so. God never called the Son "God." The Hebrew (Psalm 45) from which the writer of Hebrews rendered Heb.1:8 did not say anything about God calling the Son "O God." The Hebrew language (in the Psalms) says, "Your divine throne is everlasting." The writer of Hebrews would undoubtedly copy down carefully what the verse said in Hebrew. The translation "God is your throne" is more accurate than "your throne O God." All power comes to the Son from the Father.

Verse 10 does not find the Father calling the Son "Jehovah." It says, "You at the beginning O Lord..." It does not have "Lord" in all capital letters which would indicate it was Jehovah that was being referenced. It is just "Lord," which Jesus was called many times in the Christian Greek Scriptures (New Testament). A very weak defense for the Jesus-is-God theory.

In fact, verse 9 shows unequivocally that the Son has a God. It says, "God, your God anointed you with the oil of exultation..."