Is the Bible the inerrant Word of God?

[Elijah John]

For those who claim that the Bible is the "inerrant Word of God" why do you believe this?

Seems to me the arguments to support this belief are usually circular. As in "The Bible is inerrant because it is the Word of God". And evidence that the Bible is the Word of God?" Because the Bible is without error or contradiction", i.e. inerrant.

Consider this OP a challenge. Give the skeptic a better argument to convince them that the Bible is the inerrant Word of God than the usual circular argument.

Why do you believe and why should the skeptic believe that the Bible is the "inerrant Word of God"?

Break out of the circle.

[PinSeeker]

Here a good link:

http://www.bible-researcher.com/endmark.html

snip (cutting to the chase):

"...Yet in the balance of probabilities, can anything be more unlikely than that St. Mark broke off so abruptly as this hypothesis would imply, while no ancient writer has noticed or seemed conscious of any such abruptness? This fact has driven those who reject the concluding verses to the strangest fancies: " namely, that, like Thucydides, the Evangelist was cut off before his work was completed, or even that the last leaf of the original Gospel was torn away."

"We emphatically deny that such wild surmises are called for by the state of the evidence in this case. All opposition to the authenticity of the paragraph resolves itself into the allegations of Eusebius and the testimony of B. Let us accord to these the weight which is their due: but against their verdict we can appeal to a vast body of ecclesiastical evidence reaching back to the earlier part of the second century; to nearly all the versions; and to all extant manuscripts excepting two, of which one is doubtful. So powerfully is it vouched for, that many of those who are reluctant to recognize St. Mark as its author, are content to regard it notwithstanding as an integral portion of the inspired record originally delivered to the Church."

Carry on your "carrying on" as you will. Grace and peace.

[tam]

[Replying to post 1 by Elijah John]

May you have peace!


I have not read through the entire thread. I am going to address the question of the OP.


Is the Bible the inerrant Word of God?


There are actually a couple/few questions here. Is the Bible inerrant? Is the Bible the Word of God? Is the Word of God inerrant?

Is the Bible inerrant?


The bible makes no claim to be inerrant, despite what religion has taught.

2Timothy 3:16 is Paul speaking about scripture being inspired and useful for certain things. But inspired means that something is given "in spirit". So the prophets to whom the Word of God came, wrote down what they were given 'in spirit'. John (of Patmos) was in the spirit when he was given the Revelation, and John was told to write down what he saw and heard while in the spirit. On the other hand, Luke wrote down what he investigated from others who were eyewitnesses (and from things he witnessed himself on his journeys with Paul).

Paul even made some mistakes at the start. He did not just have his conversion and all of a sudden he know everything there is to know about everything. He had to learn ... the same as WE do... from the Teacher. Paul got up and started to work as a servant right away, that is true, but he still had baggage he was carrying from his days as a Pharisee. This is why he at first taught the Corinthians TO judge (in his second letter to them, we don't have his first letter), but later we can see that he learned the truth from Christ, NOT to judge.

Paul at first:

What business of mine is it to judge those outside the church? Are you not to judge those inside? God will judge those outside. Expel the wicked man from among you. 1 Corinthians 5:13



No! Paul is wrong here. We are not to judge anyone - inside or outside! If we have learned from Christ then we will know this, because that is what HE taught.


Do not judge, or you will be judged.



So Paul had to learn, and he DID learn, because he later says this:

Therefore let us stop judging one another. Instead, make up your mind not to put any stumbling block or obstacle in your brothers way. Romans 14:13




So the bible is not inerrant and makes no claim to be so. Even scripture is subject to the erring pen of the scribes (Jeremiah 8:8) - copyists, secretaries, translators who did not understand and so did not always remain accurate in their transcribing and translating. The doctrine that it is inerrant is a doctrine and tradition of men, and people have built their faith upon IT (the doctrine and the bible), instead of upon the TRUE Word of God.



Is the Bible the Word of God and is the Word of God inerrant?


Man has also taught that the Bible is the Word of God... and if one believes this teaching, then I guess I can understand why those ones would fight to defend the doctrine of biblical inerrency. How can the Word of God be errant?


But the teaching that the Bible is the Word of God is also a false teaching (not even biblical). The Bible is not the Word of God. The Word of God is ALIVE. Does it not make sense that the Living God - who has a living image - also has a living Word?


The Word of God is Christ. (Who among those who profess to be His disciples would even argue against this?) And He is the Word of God who is without sin... AKA... without ERROR.



Not the Bible.

Christ Jaheshua, Himself.




May anyone who wishes them be given ears to hear so as to know the truth of this matter FROM the Truth (Christ Jaheshua). May anyone who wishes also hear as the Spirit and the Bride SAY, "Come! Take the FREE gift of the water of Life."



Peace again to you and to your households,
your servant and a slave of Christ,
tammy

[brunumb]

[Replying to post 180 by PinSeeker]

Cutting to the chase:
"The evidence is clear. This ending is not found in our earliest and most reliable Greek copies of Mark. In A Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament, Bruce Metzger writes: Clement of Alexandria and Origen [early third century] show no knowledge of the existence of these verses; furthermore Eusebius and Jerome attest that the passage was absent from almost all Greek copies of Mark known to them.1 The language and style of the Greek is clearly not Markan, and it is pretty evident that what the forger did was take sections of the endings of Matthew, Luke and John (marked respectively in red, blue, and purple above) and simply create a proper ending.

Even though this longer ending became the preferred one, there are two other endings, one short and the second an expansion of the longer ending, that also show up in various manuscripts:

But they reported briefly to Peter and those with him all that they had been told. And after these things Jesus himself sent out through them, from east to west, the sacred and imperishable proclamation of eternal salvation.

[II] This age of lawlessness and unbelief is under Satan, who does not allow the truth and power of God to prevail over the unclean things of the spirits [or, does not allow what lies under the unclean spirits to understand the truth and power of God]. Therefore reveal your righteousness now " thus they spoke to Christ. And Christ replied to them, The term of years of Satans power has been fulfilled, but other terrible things draw near. And for those who have sinned I was handed over to death, that they may return to the truth and sin no more, in order that they may inherit the spiritual and incorruptible glory of righteousness that is in heaven.

I trust that the self-evident spuriousness of these additions is obvious to even the most pious readers. One might in fact hope that Christians who are zealous for the inspired Word of God would insist that all three of these bogus endings be recognized for what they are"forgeries."

https://www.biblicalarchaeology.org/dai ... ifference/