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Serious Research?

Post #1

Post by tigger2 »

Hoghead1 wrote in post 148 of What is a soul?
FYI: [A] I've done some serious research on the NWT, which is precisely why I say it is bogus. For one thing, the translators are kept secret. this is the only translation of teh Bible I have ever found where nobody wants to reveal who the translators were. [C]More importantly, the text, key points, has been unduly corrupted to suit the biases of teh WatchTower Society. For example, in the prologue to JN. the indefinite article "a" is inserted, so that the text is mistranslated as "and the Word was a God." The rules of Greek grammar rule out the use of teh indefinite article here, which is why it is absent in the solid, standard translations. The reason why the WatchTower Society want the "a" in there is that this will support their anti-Trinitarian bias. [D]Also, in passages that speak of Hell and torment, the NWT reads "annihilation." That was done to bludgeon Scripture to fit their bias about the afterlife. It is one thing to disagree with Scripture. I respect that. it is quite another to corrupt the translation so that it agree with your position. [E]Also, "Jehovah" is a serious mistranslation. And that is Hebrew 101 material. So I feel I have very good reason to write off the NWT as bogus and corrupt.


I intend to discuss the individual parts (A-E) of the above.

Ill save part A for last.

B. You wrote:

For one thing, the translators are kept secret. this is the only translation of teh [sic] Bible I have ever found where nobody wants to reveal who the translators were.



For the first 30 years at least, the publishers of the NASB kept their translators anonymous:

The Fourfold Aim of The Lockman Foundation
1.These publications shall be true to the original Hebrew and Greek.
2. They shall be grammatically correct.
3. They shall be understandable to the masses.
4. They shall give the Lord Jesus Christ His proper place, the place which the Word gives Him; no work will ever be personalized. - page v., NASB, Ref. Ed., Lockman Foundation, 1971.

For many years the names of the NASB translators and editors were withheld by the publisher. But in 1995 this information was finally disclosed. - http://www.bible-researcher.com/nasb.html

Bible translations of the OT and NT texts should be judged according to their accuracy - not the person(s) who did the translation.

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Post #181

Post by tigger2 »

dakoski wrote: [Replying to JehovahsWitness]
While elohim as a plural noun is fairly common in scripture, I would say it is not common to use Elohim associated with a singular verb, indeed this "pluralization of excellence" is almost exclusively used in the Hebrew bible for Jehovah.

I don't know about theos, but I would think LXX would reflect the above.
You're attempting to answer a different question to the one I was asking, but you're free not to answer it if you don't want. The point I was making was simply why use a word theos which is exclusively used to describe Jehovah (with the obvious exceptions we discussed above i.e. idols or sarcasm) when there is a less confusing Greek word (theios) which communicates what you think it should (that Jesus is divine but not Theos/Elohim).

Anyway, I won't have time for further replies as I'm away at the moment.
Because evidently the writer is trying to communicate something unique about the nature of The Word.
I think you're still misunderstanding the context of what I'm responding to. Its fine its a fairly common thing in these types of forums.

Clearly if John was wanting to communicate that the unique nature of the Word is that he is divine but not God - then clearly theios is the appropriate word and not theos? Do you commonly refer to the Word as God - or do you think people might find that confusing? You have words that can clarify your position in English, New Testament Greek also has such words. But instead John preferred to use theos. If John uses theos to describe Jesus, shouldn't you also use the English equivalent to describe him so?

Have a good day.


Footnote for Lesson B of 'Seven Lessons for John 1:1c' (Link in post 2 above):


Although some trinitarian apologists claim ignorance of the following, it is nevertheless scripturally true and admitted by many respected trinitarian NT Greek experts.

Some of these trinitarian sources which admit that the Scriptures actually describe men who represent God (judges, Israelite kings, etc.) and God's holy angels as gods include:

1. Young's Analytical Concordance of the Bible, "Hints and Helps...," Eerdmans, 1978 reprint;
2. Strong's Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible, #430, Hebrew & Chaldee Dict., Abingdon, 1974;
3. New Bible Dictionary, p. 1133, Tyndale House Publ., 1984;
4. Today's Dictionary of the Bible, p. 208, Bethany House Publ., 1982;
5. Hastings' A Dictionary of the Bible, p. 217, Vol. 2;
6. The New Brown-Driver-Briggs-Gesenius Hebrew-English Lexicon, p. 43, Hendrickson publ.,1979;
7. Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament, #2316 (4.), Thayer, Baker Book House, 1984 printing;
8. The International Standard Bible Encyclopaedia, p. 132, Vol. 1; & p. 1265, Vol. 2, Eerdmans, 1984;
9. The NIV Study Bible, footnotes for Ps. 45:6; Ps. 82:1, 6; & Jn 10:34; Zondervan, 1985;
10. New American Bible, St. Joseph ed., footnote for Ps. 45:7, 1970 ed.;
11. A. T. Robertson, Word Pictures, Vol. 5, pp. 188-189;
12. William G. T. Shedd, Dogmatic Theology, Vol. 1, pp. 317, 324, Nelson Publ., 1980 printing;
13. Murray J. Harris, Jesus As God, p. 202, Baker Book House, 1992;
14. William Barclay, The Gospel of John, V. 2, Daily Study Bible Series, pp. 77, 78, Westminster Press,1975;
15. The New John Gill Exposition of the Entire Bible (John 10:34 & Ps. 82:6);
16. The Fourfold Gospel (Note for John 10:35);
17. Commentary Critical and Explanatory on the Whole Bible - Jamieson, Fausset, Brown (John 10:34-36);
18. Matthew Henry Complete Commentary on the Whole Bible (Ps. 82:6-8 and John 10:35);
19. John Wesley's Explanatory Notes on the Whole Bible (Ps. 82:1).
20. Theological Dictionary of the New Testament ('Little Kittel'), - p. 328, Eerdmans Publishing Co., 1985.
21. The Expositors Greek Testament, pp. 794-795, Vol. 1, Eerdmans Publishing Co.
22. The Amplified Bible, Ps. 82:1, 6 and John 10:34, 35, Zondervan Publ., 1965.
23. Barnes' Notes on the New Testament, John 10:34, 35.
24. B. W. Johnson's People's New Testament, John 10:34-36.
25. The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology, Zondervan, 1986, Vol. 3, p. 187.
26. Fairbairns Imperial Standard Bible Encyclopedia, p. 24, vol. III, Zondervan, 1957 reprint.
27. Theological Dictionary, Rahner and Vorgrimler, p. 20, Herder and Herder, 1965.
28. Pastor Jon Courson, The Gospel According to John.
29. Vincents New Testament Word Studies, John 10:36.

(Also John 10:34, 35 - CEV: TEV; GodsWord; The Message; NLT; NIRV)

And, of course the highly respected and highly popular Hellenic Jewish writer, Philo, had the same understanding for theos about the same time the NT was written. - See my LOGOS study.

And the earliest Christians like the highly respected NT scholar Origen and others - - including Tertullian; Justin Martyr; Hippolytus; Clement of Alexandria; Theophilus; the writer of "The Epistle to Diognetus"; and even super-Trinitarians St. Athanasius and St. Augustine - - also had this understanding that a man (or an angel) can be called "a god" in a righteous sense. And, as we saw above, many respected NT scholars of this century agree.

For example, The reason why judges are called gods in Ps 82 [quoted by Jesus in John 10:34] is that they have the office of administering Gods judgment as sons of the Most High. . On the other hand, Jesus fulfilled the role of a true judge as a god and son of the Most High - The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology, Zondervan, 1986, Vol. 3, p. 187.
- See the God and gods study.

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Post #182

Post by dakoski »

[Replying to tigger2]
Footnote for Lesson B of 'Seven Lessons for John 1:1c' (Link in post 2 above):


Although some trinitarian apologists claim ignorance of the following, it is nevertheless scripturally true and admitted by many respected trinitarian NT Greek experts.

Some of these trinitarian sources which admit that the Scriptures actually describe men who represent God (judges, Israelite kings, etc.) and God's holy angels as gods include:

1. Young's Analytical Concordance of the Bible, "Hints and Helps...," Eerdmans, 1978 reprint;
2. Strong's Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible, #430, Hebrew & Chaldee Dict., Abingdon, 1974;
3. New Bible Dictionary, p. 1133, Tyndale House Publ., 1984;
4. Today's Dictionary of the Bible, p. 208, Bethany House Publ., 1982;
5. Hastings' A Dictionary of the Bible, p. 217, Vol. 2;
6. The New Brown-Driver-Briggs-Gesenius Hebrew-English Lexicon, p. 43, Hendrickson publ.,1979;
7. Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament, #2316 (4.), Thayer, Baker Book House, 1984 printing;
8. The International Standard Bible Encyclopaedia, p. 132, Vol. 1; & p. 1265, Vol. 2, Eerdmans, 1984;
9. The NIV Study Bible, footnotes for Ps. 45:6; Ps. 82:1, 6; & Jn 10:34; Zondervan, 1985;
10. New American Bible, St. Joseph ed., footnote for Ps. 45:7, 1970 ed.;
11. A. T. Robertson, Word Pictures, Vol. 5, pp. 188-189;
12. William G. T. Shedd, Dogmatic Theology, Vol. 1, pp. 317, 324, Nelson Publ., 1980 printing;
13. Murray J. Harris, Jesus As God, p. 202, Baker Book House, 1992;
14. William Barclay, The Gospel of John, V. 2, Daily Study Bible Series, pp. 77, 78, Westminster Press,1975;
15. The New John Gill Exposition of the Entire Bible (John 10:34 & Ps. 82:6);
16. The Fourfold Gospel (Note for John 10:35);
17. Commentary Critical and Explanatory on the Whole Bible - Jamieson, Fausset, Brown (John 10:34-36);
18. Matthew Henry Complete Commentary on the Whole Bible (Ps. 82:6-8 and John 10:35);
19. John Wesley's Explanatory Notes on the Whole Bible (Ps. 82:1).
20. Theological Dictionary of the New Testament ('Little Kittel'), - p. 328, Eerdmans Publishing Co., 1985.
21. The Expositors Greek Testament, pp. 794-795, Vol. 1, Eerdmans Publishing Co.
22. The Amplified Bible, Ps. 82:1, 6 and John 10:34, 35, Zondervan Publ., 1965.
23. Barnes' Notes on the New Testament, John 10:34, 35.
24. B. W. Johnson's People's New Testament, John 10:34-36.
25. The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology, Zondervan, 1986, Vol. 3, p. 187.
26. Fairbairns Imperial Standard Bible Encyclopedia, p. 24, vol. III, Zondervan, 1957 reprint.
27. Theological Dictionary, Rahner and Vorgrimler, p. 20, Herder and Herder, 1965.
28. Pastor Jon Courson, The Gospel According to John.
29. Vincents New Testament Word Studies, John 10:36.

(Also John 10:34, 35 - CEV: TEV; GodsWord; The Message; NLT; NIRV)

And, of course the highly respected and highly popular Hellenic Jewish writer, Philo, had the same understanding for theos about the same time the NT was written. - See my LOGOS study.

And the earliest Christians like the highly respected NT scholar Origen and others - - including Tertullian; Justin Martyr; Hippolytus; Clement of Alexandria; Theophilus; the writer of "The Epistle to Diognetus"; and even super-Trinitarians St. Athanasius and St. Augustine - - also had this understanding that a man (or an angel) can be called "a god" in a righteous sense. And, as we saw above, many respected NT scholars of this century agree.

For example, The reason why judges are called gods in Ps 82 [quoted by Jesus in John 10:34] is that they have the office of administering Gods judgment as sons of the Most High. . On the other hand, Jesus fulfilled the role of a true judge as a god and son of the Most High - The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology, Zondervan, 1986, Vol. 3, p. 187.
- See the God and gods study.
You missed my question that asked which Bible passages are consistent with your point. Your response above only quotes Psalm 82 which I've already shown above is using Elohim as a form of irony highlighting the pride of the men under the true Elohim's judgement:

Psalm 82:5-7
The gods know nothing, they understand nothing.
They walk about in darkness;
all the foundations of the earth are shaken.
6 I said, You are gods;
you are all sons of the Most High.
7 But you will die like mere mortals;
you will fall like every other ruler.
My point was, and Jehovahs Witness agreed with me, I'm only aware of Elohim/Theos being used in the Bible only of Jehovah in a positive manner as the true God - all other references I'm aware of are either ironic as in Psalm 82 or are referring to false gods.

Now since John 1:1 is not suggesting Jesus is an idol nor is it using theos as an ironic way of condemning his pride - in what ways are these uses of Elohim/Theos of any relevance to John 1:1?

Now as one who claims to have conducted an extensive study of the material, I would hope you would be able to provide me with some clear examples in Scripture that use the word theos or elohim to describe a faithful servant of Jehovah who is not in fact Jehovah (i.e. I'm not asking for the use of elohim or theos to describe an idol or the use of elohim/theos used in an ironic manner for those under the judgement of the true elohim).

In addition, do you have any views on why John didn't choose the word theios to describe Jesus - and instead went for theos? In your view does theos or theios better depict your understanding of Jesus?

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Post #183

Post by JehovahsWitness »

dakoski wrote: My point was, and Jehovahs Witness agreed with me, I'm only aware of Elohim/Theos being used in the Bible only of Jehovah in a positive manner as the true God - all other references I'm aware of are either ironic as in Psalm 82 or are referring to false gods.
Jehovah's Witnesses do not agree with you. Firstly, Jesus, faithful angels and godly appointed judges are all referred to as "gods" in scripture. You asked for examples of "theos"/"El (Elohim)" being referred to in a positive manner and that was supplied; even Jesus himself didn't disputed that such ones had the legitimate right to hold that title, since it was by divine appointment; as indeed was he (Jesus) - see Isaiah 9:6; John 10: 34, 35

Given the above, that only Jehovah is referred to as the True God, and that "the plural of excellence" is consistently applied to Him alone in the positive sense, does not imply that any other application of Elohim must by default be "ironic" or inappropriate but rather reflects the fact of His unique position. Other gods are not false because they are not called elohim (since some of them are), they are false *if* they claim his unique position as supreme God of the universe. Since Jesus, faithful angels and the ancient judges that did their job correctly usurped no such position they could be identified by the same generic term and its derivatives without being "false" and without a trace of "irony".

To Illustrate: A man writes profile about his family and consistently refers to his partner by the title "wife". Does that mean that every other time the word is mentioned if it his not his wife there must be "irony" or some kind of falsehood involved? If by far the overwhelming occurrences of the word apply to this couple, does that mean that every occurrence must apply to the same woman? No, the generic term wife may well apply legitimately to others even if it is not common and those others become "false" wives only if they claim to be married to the man in question.

In a similar way the unique position elohim/theos JEHOVAH, does not impose negativity by default of the same word when not applicable to Him.
dakoski wrote:The point I was making was simply why use a word theos which is exclusively used to describe Jehovah ...
Because "theos" is not exclusively used to describe Jehovah, Jehovah is exclusively used to describe Jehovah, Almighty God is exclusively used to describe Jehovah, The One True God, is exclusively used to describe Jehovah... but theos is not exclusively used to describe Jehovah (see above).

The supposition that if The Word is not a false god he must by default be the God of John 1:1(b) is therefore premature, especially as The Word cannot be "with" God if he *IS* God
Last edited by JehovahsWitness on Tue Oct 25, 2016 7:26 pm, edited 4 times in total.
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Post #184

Post by hoghead1 »

[Replying to post 177 by JehovahsWitness]

The previous clause stated that "the Word was with the God," so God, not "a god," is what the clause immediately following has in mind.

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Post #185

Post by tigger2 »

[Replying to dakoski]

That John 10:34 uses theos as ironic is merely your opinion. It doesnt seem to be the opinion of the trinitarian NT Greek authorities I have cited, nor does it seem to be the understanding of the Jews Jesus quoted it to. To demand that your opinion must be taken as fact is unreasonable.

On the other hand, I have ample evidence that the unmodified, anarthrous count noun in the NT Greek (theos) of John 1:1c was meant by John to be understood as a god in English translation. It is not mere opinion, but based on the actual grammar and usage of John himself (and all the writings of the other Gospel writers).

No one will actually discuss the studies with me which prove that, but that does not make it as invalid as a mere opinion.

Isnt it just a little odd that only John cites the fact that Jesus said judges were called gods in scripture? And he is also the only one who clearly, indisputably gives the Word the title of theos (without the article), a god?

As for theios (divine) not being used in John 1:1c, I dont see why it should have been used. John clearly understands (from Jesus own statement that men appointed by God to do his will can be called gods) that the Word may also be called a god.

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Post #186

Post by tigger2 »

[Replying to dakoski]

That John 10:34 uses theos as ironic is merely your opinion. It doesnt seem to be the opinion of the trinitarian NT Greek authorities I have cited, nor does it seem to be the understanding of the Jews Jesus quoted it to. To demand that your opinion must be taken as fact is unreasonable.

On the other hand, I have ample evidence that the unmodified, anarthrous count noun in the NT Greek (theos) of John 1:1c was meant by John to be understood as a god in English translation. It is not mere opinion, but based on the actual grammar and usage of John himself (and all the writings of the other Gospel writers).

No one will actually discuss the studies with me which prove that, but that does not make it as invalid as a mere opinion.

Isnt it just a little odd that only John cites the fact that Jesus said judges were called gods in scripture? And he is also the only one who clearly, indisputably gives the Word the title of theos (without the article), a god?

As for theios (divine) not being used in John 1:1c, I dont see why it should have been used. John clearly understands (from Jesus own statement that men appointed by God to do his will can be called gods) that the Word may also be called a god.

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Post #187

Post by JehovahsWitness »

hoghead1 wrote: *The previous clause stated that "the Word was with the God," ...
Yes, that is correct. And you said ...
hoghead1 wrote: The Word is also the subject in the preceding clause*.


I don't think anyone is disputing that The Word was the subject of the clause (John 1:1(b), which reads "the Word was with (the) God"...
hoghead1 wrote: ... so God, not "a god," is what the clause immediately following has in mind.
This statement is not particularly helpful; the clause immediately following reads "and The Word was (a) god". Stating that this clause "has in mind" /is alluding to "God not a god " is the question under discussion. Stating ones conclusion as if it were argumentation is, I believe called circular reasoning.
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Post #188

Post by hoghead1 »

[Replying to JehovahsWitness]

Stating as you did that the clause reads "the Word was a god" is incorrect, as there is no indefinite article in Greek, to start with, plus the preceding clause makes it clear the author is speaking of God, not gods or a god, plus Greek usually omits the definite article when the noun is used in the predicate nominative, as is here the case.

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Post #189

Post by hoghead1 »

[Replying to post 183 by tigger2]

Your basic assumption here is highly questionable. You seem to be of the opinion that you possess a research methodology far superior to major NT scholars and have come up with significant evidence they managed to overlook, evidence which will blow their case to smithereens. In the world of your own mind, yes, of course. In the world of reality and NT scholarship, not a chance.

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Post #190

Post by hoghead1 »

[Replying to post 179 by tigger2]

Some Trinitarian apologists overlook material here? Oh? Really? Specifically which major Trinitarian apologists do you have in mind?

Also, you are seriously misrepresenting Young here. I would encourage you to read his YLT. I'm pretty sure you can to so online. I would encourage to do so, as he translated Jn. 1 as saying, "and the Word was God."

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