Translation issues-Isaiah 7:14

[JonnyH]

Although this topic may have been covered before, lets review again.

Isaiah 7:14
Christian Bible:

Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.

Jewish Tanakh:

Assuredly, my Lord will give you a sign of His own accord! Look,the young women is whith child and about to give birth to a son. Let her name him Immanuel.

The main idea of Isaiah 7:14 is about the same between both the Christian Bible and the Jewish Tanakh except for, The Tanakh replaces the words [a virgin] with the words [the young women]. The words are translated from the original Hebrew text which uses the word [ha-almah].
In modern hebrew the word [ha-almah] still means the young women.
So how come the bible translates it to [a virgin] and uses it in the prophesy of Marry's virgin birth of Jesus?????

[Goat]

[Replying to post 1 by JonnyH]


"Virgin" or "Young Maiden"?

Matthews gospel is in Greek, the writings of Isaiah are in Hebrew. The word Matthew chose to use in the Greek (parthenos) covers BOTH a "young girl/maiden" (Heb Alma) and "Virgin". In other words "Alma" does not mean exclusively a Young girl who is NOT A VIRGIN, it can apply to a maiden who IS virgin or a maiden who is a non-virgin.

Thus Matthew was not mistranslating the word simply focusing on one aspect that ALMA can encompasss.

I would agree with you; however, there isnt really much of a problem for someone whos OT is based upon the Septuagint(LXX), which specifically says parthenos, and which is the text that Matthew was quoting.

The word Parthenos, which Matthew was quoting had gone through a slight meaning change over the centuries. In other writings,you will ind that Parthenos odes not exclusively mean virgin. There are Greek writings that reference people who 1) are married, or 2) have given birth. However , it does seem to have the virgin connotation when talking about Athena,

[polonius]

[Replying to post 1 by JonnyH]


"Virgin" or "Young Maiden"?

Matthews gospel is in Greek, the writings of Isaiah are in Hebrew. The word Matthew chose to use in the Greek (parthenos) covers BOTH a "young girl/maiden" (Heb Alma) and "Virgin". In other words "Alma" does not mean exclusively a Young girl who is NOT A VIRGIN, it can apply to a maiden who IS virgin or a maiden who is a non-virgin.

Thus Matthew was not mistranslating the word simply focusing on one aspect that ALMA can encompasss.

I would agree with you; however, there isnt really much of a problem for someone whos OT is based upon the Septuagint(LXX), which specifically says parthenos, and which is the text that Matthew was quoting.

QUESTION: What writing is the Septuagint (LXX) copied from? It's really a translation isn't it? What did an original source say?

[1213]

....
In modern hebrew the word [ha-almah] still means the young women.
So how come the bible translates it to [a virgin] and uses it in the prophesy of Marry's virgin birth of Jesus?????

I think the word play is not necessary in this, because Bible says:

Then said Mary unto the angel, How shall this be, seeing I know not a man?
Luke 1:34

So, even if there is no word virgin, it is obvious by that scripture, unless we dont believe what the Bible tells.