Subjective Morality

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The Tanager
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Subjective Morality

Post #1

Post by The Tanager »

I started this post out of another discussion with Divine Insight. DI has made some arguments for morality being subjective. I'm still trying to get the terminology straight.
Divine Insight wrote:If morality is not absolute, then it can only be subjective. A matter of opinion.
We need to get our terms straight when talking about our human morality. I agree with you concerning 'subjective' being a matter of opinion. Objective, then, would mean not being a matter of opinion. Just like the shape of the earth is not a matter of opinion. X is good or bad for everyone.

Absolute vs. situational is a sub-issue concerning objectivism. The absolutist would say X is good or bad for everyone (and thus objectivism) no matter the situation. The situationalist would say X is good or bad for everyone but qualified by the situation.

In this phrasing, morality can be objectivist without being absolute. Now, I don't care if these are the terms we agree upon or not, but there must be some term for each concept I've presented. If you want to use "absolute" for "objective" above, that's fine. But you've got to tell me what two terms you want to use for what I termed the "absolute vs. situational" sub-issue.

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Post #61

Post by Divine Insight »

Artie wrote:
Divine Insight wrote:I haven't seen any arguments for the existence of any objective morality.
Would you go around murdering people? If not, why not? Answer in five sentences or less.
Five points. If want them to be sentences just remove the periods and read them straight through without pausing to take a breath: :D

1. I have no desire to go around killing people for no good reason.

2. If I had a good reason for killing them it wouldn't be "murder".

3. Logically if I don't want people killing me for no good reason shouldn't I behave as I would like others to behave toward me? Pure logical reasoning.

4. If we lived in a lawless world where other people were trying to kill me for no good reason, then it would indeed make sense for me to try to kill them first. But the again, I'd have good reason for killing them in that environment, so it wouldn't be 'murder'. It would be justified self-defense.

5. The concept of "murder" is defined as "wrongful killing". So by definition to murder anyone is "wrong", simply because that's how the term is defined semantically. Not becasue this represents any objective morality. And it's only consider to be "wrong" if there is no justification for having done it. In the real world we have courts and juries to subjectively decide whether a killing is "murder" or justified. So our concept of "murder" is ultimately a matter of subjective human opinion and not carved in stone. Did a person have a good reason for killing someone or not? We make subjective judgements on that question.


As an aside, did President Trump of the USA "murder" an Iranian general? Or was it a justified killing? Clearly there are different subjective opinions on this case worldwide. So we can't even say objectively which is the case. All we can do is offer our subjective human opinion on the matter.
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Post #62

Post by Divine Insight »

wiploc wrote: Most Buddhists are atheists. It is possible to believe in gods and still be Buddhist, but Buddhism is often called and atheist religion.
Who calls Buddhism an "Atheist Religion"? It's highly unlikely that the Buddhists themselves refer to it in this way.

Secondly, this also enters into the question of what people mean by "gods"? Are they talking about egotistical anthropomorphic entities who rule the world like a totalitarian dictator? This is how people in the Middle East view their gods.

If that's your definition of a "god" then Buddhists may very well not believe in "gods". They view their concept of "god" in a quite different way.

So your argument that Buddhists are atheists is itself a highly subjective notion that depends on your own subjective definition of what you mean by a "god".

In order for you to call Buddhists atheists you need to support the idea that gods must be egotistical human-like entities that lust to be totalitarian dictators of the universe. Buddhists simply don't see god in this way.

So in this sense you could say that Buddhists are "atheists" with respect to the western notions of egotistical gods. That would certainly be true.
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Post #63

Post by Divine Insight »

The Tanager wrote:
Divine Insight wrote:So my actual "claim" is that since there is no evidence to the contrary, AND since morality as a subjective human construct fits with everything that can be shown to exist concerning this idea, then where is there any argument that we should even consider a proposal of some objective morality.
That has not been your only claim. I've brought out seven possible arguments from your posts. I then critiqued those arguments. In your latest post you have abandoned those arguments (some of which I allow were misunderstandings and, therefore, not your arguments, but not all of them).
I believe that all of your objections have been misunderstandings. Your objections have amounted to nothing more than philosophical apologies that you believe could be applied to an imagined external moral authority. We could go down that rabbit hole if you want, but even within that rabbit hole we are going to have extreme subjective disagreements on whether such an imaginary moral authority would itself be "moral".

How could we ever hope to judge the morality of an imagined moral agent without resorting to our own personal subjective moral opinions?
The Tanager wrote: So, what is left of the positive support for morality being a human social construct? There is nothing.
What? This is utter nonsense. The fact that humans have constructed their own personal moral values is extremely well-established and has been throughout all of history. How in the world can you deny this?
The Tanager wrote: You claim you have presented tons of evidence, but unless you deal with the critiques, your posts fail in connecting the evidences you speak of to morality being a human social construct. Without any positive support your case is reduced to:

(1) There is no positive support for morality being a human social construct.
What in the world are you talking about? Human subjective morality exists whether an objective morality exist on top of that or not.

You are making the grave mistake of assuming that if an objective morality exists and thus trumps human subjective morality altogether then human subjective moral judgements no longer exist. But that wouldn't be true anyway.
The Tanager wrote: (2) Morality being a human social construct is logically consistent.
Logically consistent in what way? It's clearly logically consistent with the obvious evidence that it exists. Are human subjective opinions on moral concept logically consistent with those of other humans? No. But who says they need to be?

You seem to be confined to an idea that if morality isn't self-consistent then it is meaningless. That may be true for someone who wishes that a single overriding objective system or morality could exist. But until you can show that such a lofty philosophical ideal actually exists, then that's all it amount to: A philosophical ideal that has no existence in the real world.
The Tanager wrote: (3) There is no positive support for morality coming from outside of humans.
I absolutely hold this to be true, and you have not yet shown that it isn't true.
The Tanager wrote: To that I would add

(4) Morality not being a human social construct is logically consistent.

If (3) is true, then wouldn't the rational view be agnosticism? The way it wouldn't be is if you could show (4) to be false. I don't think you can do that, but feel free to offer reasons if you feel you can.
YES! I have always held that the rational view should be agnosticism. I won't argue against that.

But that doesn't change the fact that human subjective morality does indeed exist and is all that we can see existing in our world. It's all that we have evidence for. There is no evidence for the existence of an idealized philosophical objective moral system.

And you most certainly haven't provided any evidence for the existence of such an imagined system.
The Tanager wrote: If not, then we can turn to my beliefs and support for those beliefs. Here I think you may have assumed some incorrect things about what I would claim. So far, I have only been responding against the notion that there is strong positive support for morality being a human social construct.
If you believe that you have shown that there is no evidence for morality being a human social construct, then you are seriously ignoring the facts of reality.

How can you not see that subjective human opinions on morality are all that exist in the real world?

If there is such a thing as objective morality there is no evidence for it, nor does anyone know what it has to say.
The Tanager wrote: As such, I have not actually made a positive claim. But now I will make three positive claims.
Finally we're getting somewhere. :D
The Tanager wrote: (A) If theism is true, then morality is not a human social construct.

I realize this depends on how one defines theism; I mean it in the most traditional sense.
I disagree. Even if theism is true humans still have subjective opinions on what they consider to be moral or immoral. Therefore morality as a human social construct continues to exist even if theism is true.

Theism being true wouldn't make human subjective morality vanish. All it would it would do is supposedly trump human subjective moral opinions with some imagined absolute moral judgement that humans don't even have access to.

So even if theism is true, that doesn't change the fact that human subjective morality also exists right alongside any morality that might be associated with the god of theism. In fact, many humans would have no problem arguing with the moral "opinions" of any such gods even if such gods did exist.

After all why should the moral opinions of a god be the final say?
The Tanager wrote: (B) If atheism is true, then morality is probably a human social construct.
Morality as a human social construct already exists and pervades the entire world. This is true whether any gods exist or not.

All you could do at this point is argue that some invisible god, for which there is no evidence, has different subjective options on what he thinks is moral from what many humans consider to be moral.

Both systems of moral judgement would still exist in this situation. All you could argue for at this point is that an omnipotent god could force his opinions on everyone else and they would be helpless to resist his power. Many humans would argue that to even do this would be an "immoral" act in their opinion.

In short, even if a god exists who demands to be the moral authoritarian, who's to say that he himself is "moral"?
The Tanager wrote: I think (B) would be your strongest support to counter (1) above. Although I do not think a strong rational case can be made for atheism, I think those that believe atheism is true (even if "just" more plausible than theism) are rational to believe morality is a human social construct. The reason I say "probably" is because a case would need to be made against Moral Platonism and physical reductionism (or possibly other suggestions I am unaware of). I think a good case can be made against those (at least those views I am aware of), so that I think, given your atheism, you should believe morality is a human social construct.

I do not want to turn this into a theism v. atheism debate, though, so what are left with if we treat that question as unsettled? That brings me to a third positive claim.
You've just voiced a human subjective opinion:
The Tanager wrote: Although I do not think a strong rational case can be made for atheism
Yes, you are right, that would take us down a whole other topic. Because I feel precisely the opposite. I think the case for atheism is profound.

Clearly you are bringing in ideals that you have already accepted and including these as part of the "premises" for you philosophical arguments.

But I have no reason to accept the premise that a strong rational case cannot be made for atheism. I feel that just the opposite can be shown to be true.

So I reject your assumed premise on this. Argument based on premises that I have not agreed to aren't compelling arguments.
The Tanager wrote: (C) Given agnosticism concerning the theism question, it is more plausible to believe morality is not a human social construct.
Wrong again. In our world today morality is indeed a human social construct.

This remains true even if some imagined invisible moral dictator exists. Human subjective morality is still a fact of reality. Nothing can change this.

The existence of a god who demands that his opinions on morality will ultimately be forced onto everyone does not change the fact that human subjective morality still exists. And as I've mentioned earlier some humans wouldn't even have a problem arguing morality with any such dictator gods. And if the god unleashed his wrath upon them for simply disagreeing with him wouldn't that god have just proved that the human's subjective morality is superior to his?

What makes a totalitarian dictator who forces his opinions onto everyone else through the use of violence morally superior to anyone? :-k

Even if a god exists, it would be hard to make a case that this god is "moral". Even that would come down to human subjective opinion.
The Tanager wrote: To me, we would be left in agnosticism in our question if it weren't for our common human intuitions about morality. As I observe humankind I think it is natural for humans to think and act as though morality is not a human social construct. We act differently towards child torturers than we do those countries that drive on the other side of the road from us. People have to overcome those natural intuitions to become a consistent subjectivist.
Pointing to common consensus concerning extreme scenarios hardly constitutes evidence for common human moral intuitions.

This idea simply breaks down too rapidly. What about gays? Should people have the right to love and live with whomever they choose? Clearly there is no common human intuition concerning this question. In fact, when polled most people have the moral intuition that people should be free to live and love however they choose as long as they aren't harming anyone. No harm = no immorality. This would different from the moral opinions of some traditional gods.

We can also point to countless moral questions where humans passionately disagree. Should a severely abused woman who kills her abusing husband be found guilty of "murder" or acquitted on a principle of "self-defense"?

Different humans have different moral intuitions concerning these question as well.

So pointing to something like child torturers as an example of common human moral intuition is actually quite dishonest, IMHO. Not to imply that you are being dishonest. I'm just saying that it's not an argument that takes into account all relevant moral scenarios.
The Tanager wrote: I think the simplest answer is that we have these intuitions because they are true.
I suggest this is bad debate form. You are assuming here that you have just established a "premise" that all humans have the same moral intuitions and that you can now continue on using this supposedly "established premise" to support your argument further.

But you haven't established that humans have universal moral intuitions at all. That has not been established and I have even given scenarios where humans clearly do not share the same moral intuition.

So it's not a valid premise to claim that humans share common moral intuitions. That's a fallacy. It's simply not true.
The Tanager wrote: I think that is the most rational belief until a defeater comes along. In the same way we can trust our vision until evidence comes along to defeat that and show that we are seeing a mirage, for instance. Atheism, if true, would probably be the defeater (unless cases can be made for Moral Platonism, physical reductionism, or some view unknown to me).
But your entire argument here is based on a false premise.

You have premised that humans have common moral intuitions, but that premise can be clearly shown to be false.

So you are making your argument based on a premise that has not been established to be true, and has even been established to be false.

The defeater of your argument has already come. You've introduced a false premise. That's the failure of your argument right there.
The Tanager wrote: But let's say that one doesn't buy this.
I think a lot of people aren't going to buy into the idea that all humans have the same moral intuition. This can be easily demonstrated to be a false premise.
The Tanager wrote: I don't see how anyone can make the case to automatically distrust our universal human intuition and sway the balances towards morality being a social human construct. That would leave us back with agnosticism. Now, at that point another consideration (risk v. reward) might come into play, but we have enough to discuss so far, so that question can be saved.
What? :-k

See, you are now arguing as if you have somehow established that human moral intuition is universal.

If this is going to be your line of argument then you're not going to get very far.

You lay claim to a premise about universal human moral intuition. And to support that premise all you've pointed to is "Child Torturers" concluding that if everyone agrees that torturing children is wrong then your premise of universal moral intuition has been well-established.

No, it doesn't work that way.

So your entire argument based on a premise that there exists universal human moral intuition is simply false.

That has not been established, nor could it ever be established becasue it simply isn't true. I've already given examples where humans have different moral intuition on moral questions.

So your first argument for objective morality based on an imagined universal human moral intuition is false. It doesn't fly.

Humans have very strong independent moral intuitions. Save for only a few extreme scenarios (like torturing children) humans are not likely to share the same moral intuitions. So your claim that this universal moral intuition exists is false. There is no evidence for any such thing. In fact, there is overwhelming evidence that humans do not share the same moral intuitions universally.

So thus far you have no argument for the evidence of any objective morality.
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Post #64

Post by Divine Insight »

Just for the sake of brevity for anyone reading this thread: Here's a recap of the previous post:

The Tanager: Premise: Human moral intuition is universal.

This premise was claimed by The Tanager, and was shown to be clearly false by DI.

Tanager's basic argument for the existence of objective morality:
I don't see how anyone can make the case to automatically distrust our universal human intuition
He's wrongfully assuming here that there is any substance to his premise that universal human moral intuition exists. It doesn't. It's an empty premise as all humans have independent moral intuitions. There is no evidence in the real world for any universal moral intuition save for a few extreme moral questions. If such a thing actually did exist then all humans would agree on all moral values. But they clearly do not agree. So the premise of universal human moral intuition that The Tanager is asking us to embrace here is a false premise.
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Post #65

Post by Artie »

Divine Insight wrote:Five points. If want them to be sentences just remove the periods and read them straight through without pausing to take a breath: :D

1. I have no desire to go around killing people for no good reason.
Why don't you have any desire to go around killing people for no good reason?
3. Logically if I don't want people killing me for no good reason shouldn't I behave as I would like others to behave toward me? Pure logical reasoning.
Why don't you want people killing you for no good reason?
4. If we lived in a lawless world where other people were trying to kill me for no good reason, then it would indeed make sense for me to try to kill them first. But the again, I'd have good reason for killing them in that environment, so it wouldn't be 'murder'. It would be justified self-defense.
Sure.

I have just taken away the points I have no special comment to. Please answer each question as clear and concise and brief and to the point as you can.

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Post #66

Post by Divine Insight »

Artie wrote: Why don't you have any desire to go around killing people for no good reason?
I have absolutely NO CLUE. All I can say is that this is not something that I've ever had a desire to do.

Obviously this isn't the case for all humans. Unfortunately.

There is also the extremely troubling question of why there exist people who do desire to kill people for no good reason. Did they chose to have that desire? Or like me, do they also have NO CLUE why it is that they desire to do what they do?
Artie wrote: Why don't you want people killing you for no good reason?
Because I'm subjectively enjoying life and would prefer to continue living.

Also, if they were going to kill me for no good reason they would most likely be killing off my friends and loved ones for no good reason as well. And I subjectively don't want to see my friends and loves ones killed off for no good reason either.
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Post #67

Post by Artie »

Divine Insight wrote:
Artie wrote: Why don't you have any desire to go around killing people for no good reason?
I have absolutely NO CLUE. All I can say is that this is not something that I've ever had a desire to do.
It's because your brain is wired for moral behavior (good for society) and against immoral behavior (bad for society). https://thelawdictionary.org/immoral/

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Post #68

Post by Divine Insight »

Artie wrote:
Divine Insight wrote:
Artie wrote: Why don't you have any desire to go around killing people for no good reason?
I have absolutely NO CLUE. All I can say is that this is not something that I've ever had a desire to do.
It's because your brain is wired for moral behavior (good for society) and against immoral behavior (bad for society). https://thelawdictionary.org/immoral/
How silly is this?

If there was any truth to this claim then why isn't everyone like me? :-k

Are you suggesting that I should be held up as the perfect model of morality? Or as an example of a perfectly wired brain?

Very flattering. But unfortunately clearly absurd.
Last edited by Divine Insight on Sun Jan 12, 2020 4:04 pm, edited 1 time in total.
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Post #69

Post by Divine Insight »

Artie wrote:
Divine Insight wrote:
Artie wrote: Why don't you have any desire to go around killing people for no good reason?
I have absolutely NO CLUE. All I can say is that this is not something that I've ever had a desire to do.
It's because your brain is wired for moral behavior (good for society) and against immoral behavior (bad for society). https://thelawdictionary.org/immoral/
By the way, what would you have to say to a serial killer? Or those who engage in mass shootings?

Would you say to them,...

It's because your brain is wired for immoral behavior (bad for society) and against moral behavior (good for society).

You seem to have ignored the fact that you just accidentally happen to be talking to a person who has no desire to kill people.

Also, are you prepared to agree with my views on moral questions 100%. Or will you later need to retract your claim that my brain is wired for what you personally and subjectively consider to be "good for society".

I suggest that there are a lot of different subjective opinions concerning what constitutes a concept of "good for society".

Are automobiles "good for society"? A lot of people are killed in auto accidents every day. So one could argue that to produce and use automobiles is immoral because they harm society.

Your very criteria for morality is already a subjective notion open to human subjective opinions.
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Post #70

Post by Artie »

Divine Insight wrote:Your very criteria for morality is already a subjective notion open to human subjective opinions.
If one person claims that going around killing people for no good reason is good for society (moral) and another person claims that going around killing people for no good reason is bad for society (immoral) which one is objectively right DI? Don't try to tell us that what is moral is subjective and they both are right...
https://thelawdictionary.org/immoral/
Last edited by Artie on Sun Jan 12, 2020 5:43 pm, edited 1 time in total.

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