Why is divorce not an option for Christians?

[arunangelo]

In marriage, spouses leave their parents and unite with each other (Mark 10:7) to become one flesh (Gen.2: 24). Because, it is a covenant of love, and God is love (1 John4:8), it is God who seals the marriage covenant; and no one can separate what God has joined together (Matt 19:6). In divorce, therefore, this covenant is not broken; it is rejected. Therefore, remarriage after divorce is adultery (Luke 16:18). Furthermore, since God seals this covenant, divorce is rejection of God. God, therefore, hates divorce (Malachi 2:16) and is not pleased with the offerings of those who divorce their spouse (Malachi 2: 13-14). Jesus tells us that before making offering to God, we must reconcile with those with whom we have grievances (Matt. 5: 23-24). Therefore, a divorced person must first reconcile with his/her spouse before making an offering to the Lord. Furthermore, even if there is unfaithfulness a person must still stay faith to his/her spouse, just as God His faithful to us even when we reject Him (Hosea 3:1).

Divorce is absolutely prohibited in the Gospels (Mk 10:11-12, Luke 6:18; Matthew 5: 31-32). In Matthews gospel there appears to be an exception. The exception in the Greek text is porneia (which means incest or fornication), and not moiceia (which means adultery). In the Mosaic Law (Lv 18:6-18) certain types of marriages between close relatives were unlawful, because, they were regarded as incest (porneia). Certain rabbis, however, allowed gentile converts to Judaism to remain in such marriages. The exemption in Matthews gospel is against such permissiveness for gentile converts to Christianity. Fornication is another meaning for porneia. Therefore, this exception also applies to couples who fornicate by living together without a lawful marriage (also known as common law marriages).

surrendersacrifice
webs site: surrendersacrifice.com

[Athetotheist]

Nothing in scripture indicates stubbornness is "right in Gods eyes".

Nothing in the law indicates that anything the law allows is "stubbornness".

... I challenge you to show me where Moses said that any part of the law was "adapted" to people's "stubbornness". ...

Did I say MOSES said that?

Did I say you said Moses said that? No. I'm challenging you to show me where Moses said it.

Jesus stated that.

That's exactly my point. Jesus said it; Moses didn't.

Why would God ... mislead them into believing that they could "love the Lord your God and serve him with all your heart and with all your soul (Deut. 11:13) while indulging in that stubbornness?

Where did he do that?

He didn't----but Jesus is unintentionally implying that he did.

[JehovahsWitness]

That's exactly my point. Jesus said it; Moses didn't.

So? So what?!

Why would God ... mislead them into believing that they could "love the Lord your God and serve him with all your heart and with all your soul (Deut. 11:13) while indulging in that stubbornness?

Where did he do that?

He didn't----but Jesus is unintentionally implying that he did.

I disagree. Perhaps you would like to present your rationale in defence of such a conclusion






JW

[Athetotheist]

That's exactly my point. Jesus said it; Moses didn't.

So? So what?!

Why would God ... mislead them into believing that they could "love the Lord your God and serve him with all your heart and with all your soul (Deut. 11:13) while indulging in that stubbornness?

Where did he do that?

He didn't----but Jesus is unintentionally implying that he did.

I disagree. Perhaps you would like to present your rationale in defence of such a conclusion

That's what I've been doing all along.

Jesus says that Moses made an allowance in the law for the people's stubbornness.

Moses says nothing of the kind. He does say that the people are to keep all of the law----as it is----in order to love and serve their God and do right in his eyes.

Stubbornness is disobedience. In order for it to be possible for the people to serve their God with all their heart and all their soul (Dt. 11:13) and do right in his eyes (13:18) by being obedient to all of the law----as Moses commanded(27:1)----there couldn't be anything in the law allowing them to remain disobedient, which means that Jesus was wrong about the law. That's plain, simple logic.

[JehovahsWitness]

....there couldn't be anything in the law allowing them to remain disobedient...

There was nothing in the law that allowed them to remain disobedient.

You are aware what disobedience means? It means not obeying a specific instruction: what specific instruction are you suggesting the Israelites were allowed by mandate to disobey? Jesus didn't speak about disobedience he spoke about "stubborness of heart", in other words a mental inclination. He explicitly said God was aware of this problem and mandated accordingly. There was no law that commanded people to be stubborn and nothing in the law that prohibited divorce.

You seem to be suffering from a rabid case of extrapolation.






JW

[Athetotheist]

Jesus didn't speak about disobedience he spoke about "stubborness of heart", in other words a mental inclination.

Right-----a mental inclination toward disobedience. Stubbornness requires a context. People can't just "be stubborn"; they have to be stubborn about something. If Jesus wasn't saying that they were disobedient, then he must have been admitting that they were obedient. If they were obedient, how were they being stubborn?

"Therefore circumcise the foreskin of your heart, and be stiff-necked (stubborn) no longer." (Deut. 10:16)

How could Moses write a flexibility for their stubbornness into the same law in which he explicitly tells them to stop being stubborn?

There was no law that commanded people to be stubborn

I didn't say there was. You're the one building strawmen.

and nothing in the law that prohibited divorce.

That's what I've been saying. By admitting that Jesus violates Deut. 4:2 by adding to the law in Matt.5:32, you're making my argument for me.

[Athetotheist]

"It has been said, ‘Anyone who divorces his wife must give her a certificate of divorce.’ But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, makes her the victim of adultery, and anyone who marries a divorced woman commits adultery."
(Matthew 5:31-32)

Jesus replied, “Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning. I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery.”
(Matthew 19:8-9)

“It was because your hearts were hard that Moses wrote you this law,” Jesus replied. “But at the beginning of creation God ‘made them male and female.’ For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh.’ So they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let no one separate.”
When they were in the house again, the disciples asked Jesus about this. He answered, “Anyone who divorces his wife and marries another woman commits adultery against her. And if she divorces her husband and marries another man, she commits adultery.”
(Mark 10:5-12)

"Anyone who divorces his wife and marries another woman commits adultery, and the man who marries a divorced woman commits adultery."
(Luke 16:18)

If Mark and Luke were the only two gospels, would there be any reason to believe that Jesus had made any exception for divorce?

If the answer to that question is "no", then what he says in Matthew contradicts what he says in Mark and Luke.


"All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness"
(2 Timothy 3:16)

Is Deuteronomy 24:1-4 scripture?

If it is scripture, why would the God of Israel give that scripture to the Israelites for doctrine, reproof, correction and instruction in righteousness and then tell them that it was given to them for the hardness of their hearts?