1. Jehovah’s Witnesses say Jesus was “a god.” This is how the NWT reads (John 1:1).
Do JW’s believe Jesus was a true or false god?
2. JW’s say Jesus is a created being.
When was Jesus (capital or lower case g) created?
I look forward to your responses to one or both questions.
MissKate13
Questions about Jesus and JW’s
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Questions about Jesus and JW’s
Post #1”For unless you believe that I am, you will die in your sins.” (John 8:24
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Re: Questions about Jesus and JW’s
Post #491JESUS had emptied HIMself, and as such had taken on the form of a servant. HE then behaved in the way of a perfect man who entirely places HIS faith and trust in the HEAVENLY FATHER. You write things that consistently contradict what the Bible reveals regarding the nature of the MESSIAH. The book Revelation of JESUS CHRIST 1:6 "And hath made us kings and priests unto God and his Father; to him glory and dominion for ever and ever. Amen."onewithhim wrote: ↑Mon Jan 22, 2024 11:52 amYou are not being Scripturally accurate. God HAS given Jesus power and authority. You might want to peruse your copy of the Bible once more. Jesus and his Father, God, are "one" in the same sense as the disciples are one with God and Jesus. They are in agreement, unified in thought. In prayer to God, Jesus said about his disciples: "I make request, not concerning these only, but also concerning those putting faith in me through their word, in order that they may all be one, just as you, Father, are in union with me and I am in union with you, that they also may be in union with us, in order that the world may believe that you sent me forth. Also, I have given them the glory that you have given me, in order that they may be one, just as we are one. I in union with them and you in union with me...." (John 17:20-23)LittleNipper wrote: ↑Sun Jan 21, 2024 7:39 pmYour posts are Biblically selective. GOD doesn't give away the ability to be GOD. CHRIST and HIS FATHER are ONE. JESUS is a unique being: All MAN yet entirely GOD. CHRIST LOVED US and that is why CHRIST died for us. I'm going to start another thread where JESUS CHRIST speaks for HIMSELF.onewithhim wrote: ↑Sun Jan 21, 2024 6:38 pmOh be for real. Once again you didn't bother to read my post. It's no use going around and around with you when you don't want to have a reasonable discussion. God Almighty GAVE Jesus the ability to create and judge and anything else Jesus does, in his Father's name. (See John chapter 17.) Jesus isn't part of a trinity. He just RECEIVED power and authority from his Father---Almighty God (and the ONLY true God as Jesus said at John 17:3).LittleNipper wrote: ↑Sun Jan 21, 2024 8:09 am I believe that there is only ONE GOD and that GOD only is able to both CREATE and FORGIVE and LOVE. No created being has the ability to create from nothing. This places CHRIST in a unique position and why I totally believe in the TRIUNITY of GOD.
Jesus also said, referring to the fact that God has GIVEN him power and authority:
"All authority has been GIVEN to me in heaven and on the earth." (Matthew 28:18)
His Apostles also said, concerning how God gave Jesus power and glory: "God also EXALTED him to a superior position and kindly GAVE him the name that is above every other name." (Philippians 2:9)
So to sum up the point, Jesus and God and the disciples are all "one," that is, united in thought and deed. If being "one" with God means that a person himself is God, then THE DISCIPLES ARE ALSO GOD, as you can see from the Scriptures quoted. They are also "one" with God.
Jesus could not be God because he prayed TO God, and he said that he couldn't do anything by himself but only what God showed him to do. (John 5:19, 30; John 12:49,50) He and his Father are two distinct individuals, as the Scriptures show us unequivocally. Jesus said he came to do his Father's will, and not his own will. Jesus is subordinate to the Father, God. He said again: "I seek not my own will, but the will of him that sent me." (John 5:30)
You accusation that I am "selective" with verses is untrue. I'm afraid that that situation falls to you. You say things that contradict the whole Bible canon.
All who believe live in the sphere of God's rule, a kingdom entered by faith in Jesus Christ. And as priests, believers have the right to enter God's presence.
The most important statement (in verse 6), is that Jesus is called God. The statement "God and his Father" leaves no doubt that Jesus was, is, and always will be God. Notice too, that it is nothing we do that makes us kings and priests. Jesus makes us kings and priests.
Revelation 1:8 "I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty."
The first words of Jesus to John personally identify him with the "I AM" of Scripture, for He calls Himself the "Alpha and Omega." These are the first and last letters of the Greek alphabet. The title signifies, in the language of communication, the completeness with which God revealed Himself to mankind through Christ. This is nothing less than an official affirmation by Jesus of His personal deity. No ordinary human would ever say of himself, "I am the first and last."
We see here that God the Father, God the Word, and God the Holy Spirit are all three eternal. They each have no beginning and no end. Their Spirit is one. Their embodiments are three.
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Re: Questions about Jesus and JW’s
Post #492In Revelation 1:6 it is speaking about Jesus, yes, and you notice that it speaks about "his God and Father." Therefore Jesus could not be God. Jesus HAS a God. And that God is his Father, Jehovah.LittleNipper wrote: ↑Tue Jan 23, 2024 9:56 amJESUS had emptied HIMself, and as such had taken on the form of a servant. HE then behaved in the way of a perfect man who entirely places HIS faith and trust in the HEAVENLY FATHER. You write things that consistently contradict what the Bible reveals regarding the nature of the MESSIAH. The book Revelation of JESUS CHRIST 1:6 "And hath made us kings and priests unto God and his Father; to him glory and dominion for ever and ever. Amen."onewithhim wrote: ↑Mon Jan 22, 2024 11:52 amYou are not being Scripturally accurate. God HAS given Jesus power and authority. You might want to peruse your copy of the Bible once more. Jesus and his Father, God, are "one" in the same sense as the disciples are one with God and Jesus. They are in agreement, unified in thought. In prayer to God, Jesus said about his disciples: "I make request, not concerning these only, but also concerning those putting faith in me through their word, in order that they may all be one, just as you, Father, are in union with me and I am in union with you, that they also may be in union with us, in order that the world may believe that you sent me forth. Also, I have given them the glory that you have given me, in order that they may be one, just as we are one. I in union with them and you in union with me...." (John 17:20-23)LittleNipper wrote: ↑Sun Jan 21, 2024 7:39 pmYour posts are Biblically selective. GOD doesn't give away the ability to be GOD. CHRIST and HIS FATHER are ONE. JESUS is a unique being: All MAN yet entirely GOD. CHRIST LOVED US and that is why CHRIST died for us. I'm going to start another thread where JESUS CHRIST speaks for HIMSELF.onewithhim wrote: ↑Sun Jan 21, 2024 6:38 pmOh be for real. Once again you didn't bother to read my post. It's no use going around and around with you when you don't want to have a reasonable discussion. God Almighty GAVE Jesus the ability to create and judge and anything else Jesus does, in his Father's name. (See John chapter 17.) Jesus isn't part of a trinity. He just RECEIVED power and authority from his Father---Almighty God (and the ONLY true God as Jesus said at John 17:3).LittleNipper wrote: ↑Sun Jan 21, 2024 8:09 am I believe that there is only ONE GOD and that GOD only is able to both CREATE and FORGIVE and LOVE. No created being has the ability to create from nothing. This places CHRIST in a unique position and why I totally believe in the TRIUNITY of GOD.
Jesus also said, referring to the fact that God has GIVEN him power and authority:
"All authority has been GIVEN to me in heaven and on the earth." (Matthew 28:18)
His Apostles also said, concerning how God gave Jesus power and glory: "God also EXALTED him to a superior position and kindly GAVE him the name that is above every other name." (Philippians 2:9)
So to sum up the point, Jesus and God and the disciples are all "one," that is, united in thought and deed. If being "one" with God means that a person himself is God, then THE DISCIPLES ARE ALSO GOD, as you can see from the Scriptures quoted. They are also "one" with God.
Jesus could not be God because he prayed TO God, and he said that he couldn't do anything by himself but only what God showed him to do. (John 5:19, 30; John 12:49,50) He and his Father are two distinct individuals, as the Scriptures show us unequivocally. Jesus said he came to do his Father's will, and not his own will. Jesus is subordinate to the Father, God. He said again: "I seek not my own will, but the will of him that sent me." (John 5:30)
You accusation that I am "selective" with verses is untrue. I'm afraid that that situation falls to you. You say things that contradict the whole Bible canon.
All who believe live in the sphere of God's rule, a kingdom entered by faith in Jesus Christ. And as priests, believers have the right to enter God's presence.
The most important statement (in verse 6), is that Jesus is called God. The statement "God and his Father" leaves no doubt that Jesus was, is, and always will be God. Notice too, that it is nothing we do that makes us kings and priests. Jesus makes us kings and priests.
Revelation 1:8 "I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty."
The first words of Jesus to John personally identify him with the "I AM" of Scripture, for He calls Himself the "Alpha and Omega." These are the first and last letters of the Greek alphabet. The title signifies, in the language of communication, the completeness with which God revealed Himself to mankind through Christ. This is nothing less than an official affirmation by Jesus of His personal deity. No ordinary human would ever say of himself, "I am the first and last."
We see here that God the Father, God the Word, and God the Holy Spirit are all three eternal. They each have no beginning and no end. Their Spirit is one. Their embodiments are three.
In verse 8 JEHOVAH is speaking---the God of Jesus. Jehovah is the Alpha and Omega. Do you not consider that Jesus' God and Father would have many things to say in this letter of John's? Everything is not from Jesus. Verse 1 shows us that the revelation is given to John by Jesus Christ, and God GAVE him the revelation. So Jesus isn't God, as can plainly be seen here. God gave the revelation TO Jesus, and Jesus passed it on to John through a angel. Four persons involved here in verse 1.
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Re: Questions about Jesus and JW’s
Post #493The King James translation is correct of Revelation 1:6 And hath made us kings and priests unto God and his Father; to him be glory and dominion for ever and ever. Amen.onewithhim wrote: ↑Tue Jan 23, 2024 12:34 pmIn Revelation 1:6 it is speaking about Jesus, yes, and you notice that it speaks about "his God and Father." Therefore Jesus could not be God. Jesus HAS a God. And that God is his Father, Jehovah.LittleNipper wrote: ↑Tue Jan 23, 2024 9:56 amJESUS had emptied HIMself, and as such had taken on the form of a servant. HE then behaved in the way of a perfect man who entirely places HIS faith and trust in the HEAVENLY FATHER. You write things that consistently contradict what the Bible reveals regarding the nature of the MESSIAH. The book Revelation of JESUS CHRIST 1:6 "And hath made us kings and priests unto God and his Father; to him glory and dominion for ever and ever. Amen."onewithhim wrote: ↑Mon Jan 22, 2024 11:52 amYou are not being Scripturally accurate. God HAS given Jesus power and authority. You might want to peruse your copy of the Bible once more. Jesus and his Father, God, are "one" in the same sense as the disciples are one with God and Jesus. They are in agreement, unified in thought. In prayer to God, Jesus said about his disciples: "I make request, not concerning these only, but also concerning those putting faith in me through their word, in order that they may all be one, just as you, Father, are in union with me and I am in union with you, that they also may be in union with us, in order that the world may believe that you sent me forth. Also, I have given them the glory that you have given me, in order that they may be one, just as we are one. I in union with them and you in union with me...." (John 17:20-23)LittleNipper wrote: ↑Sun Jan 21, 2024 7:39 pmYour posts are Biblically selective. GOD doesn't give away the ability to be GOD. CHRIST and HIS FATHER are ONE. JESUS is a unique being: All MAN yet entirely GOD. CHRIST LOVED US and that is why CHRIST died for us. I'm going to start another thread where JESUS CHRIST speaks for HIMSELF.onewithhim wrote: ↑Sun Jan 21, 2024 6:38 pmOh be for real. Once again you didn't bother to read my post. It's no use going around and around with you when you don't want to have a reasonable discussion. God Almighty GAVE Jesus the ability to create and judge and anything else Jesus does, in his Father's name. (See John chapter 17.) Jesus isn't part of a trinity. He just RECEIVED power and authority from his Father---Almighty God (and the ONLY true God as Jesus said at John 17:3).LittleNipper wrote: ↑Sun Jan 21, 2024 8:09 am I believe that there is only ONE GOD and that GOD only is able to both CREATE and FORGIVE and LOVE. No created being has the ability to create from nothing. This places CHRIST in a unique position and why I totally believe in the TRIUNITY of GOD.
Jesus also said, referring to the fact that God has GIVEN him power and authority:
"All authority has been GIVEN to me in heaven and on the earth." (Matthew 28:18)
His Apostles also said, concerning how God gave Jesus power and glory: "God also EXALTED him to a superior position and kindly GAVE him the name that is above every other name." (Philippians 2:9)
So to sum up the point, Jesus and God and the disciples are all "one," that is, united in thought and deed. If being "one" with God means that a person himself is God, then THE DISCIPLES ARE ALSO GOD, as you can see from the Scriptures quoted. They are also "one" with God.
Jesus could not be God because he prayed TO God, and he said that he couldn't do anything by himself but only what God showed him to do. (John 5:19, 30; John 12:49,50) He and his Father are two distinct individuals, as the Scriptures show us unequivocally. Jesus said he came to do his Father's will, and not his own will. Jesus is subordinate to the Father, God. He said again: "I seek not my own will, but the will of him that sent me." (John 5:30)
You accusation that I am "selective" with verses is untrue. I'm afraid that that situation falls to you. You say things that contradict the whole Bible canon.
All who believe live in the sphere of God's rule, a kingdom entered by faith in Jesus Christ. And as priests, believers have the right to enter God's presence.
The most important statement (in verse 6), is that Jesus is called God. The statement "God and his Father" leaves no doubt that Jesus was, is, and always will be God. Notice too, that it is nothing we do that makes us kings and priests. Jesus makes us kings and priests.
Revelation 1:8 "I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty."
The first words of Jesus to John personally identify him with the "I AM" of Scripture, for He calls Himself the "Alpha and Omega." These are the first and last letters of the Greek alphabet. The title signifies, in the language of communication, the completeness with which God revealed Himself to mankind through Christ. This is nothing less than an official affirmation by Jesus of His personal deity. No ordinary human would ever say of himself, "I am the first and last."
We see here that God the Father, God the Word, and God the Holy Spirit are all three eternal. They each have no beginning and no end. Their Spirit is one. Their embodiments are three.
In verse 8 JEHOVAH is speaking---the God of Jesus. Jehovah is the Alpha and Omega. Do you not consider that Jesus' God and Father would have many things to say in this letter of John's? Everything is not from Jesus. Verse 1 shows us that the revelation is given to John by Jesus Christ, and God GAVE him the revelation. So Jesus isn't God, as can plainly be seen here. God gave the revelation TO Jesus, and Jesus passed it on to John through a angel. Four persons involved here in verse 1.
Revelation is the GREAT REVEAL that JESUS CHRIST is in fact GOD. Everything else has already been explained. CHRIST reveals HIS eternal connection with HIS FATHER, the HOLY SPIRIT, by being uniquely GOD in the flesh. And this is how GOD remains unchanged but able to become a MAN. The angels cry HOLY, HOLY, HOLY. The GOD HEAD. What was, is , and yet to come. THE TRINITY REVEALED through CHRIST JESUS.
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Re: Questions about Jesus and JW’s
Post #494onewithhim wrote: ↑Tue Jan 23, 2024 12:34 pmIn Revelation 1:6 it is speaking about Jesus, yes, and you notice that it speaks about "his God and Father." Therefore Jesus could not be God. Jesus HAS a God. And that God is his Father, Jehovah.
The verse is truly ambiguous in Greek. Neither of you has a basis for claiming that a particular translation is correct other than the theological positions you're trying to prooftext. Using a particular reading of Revelation 1:6 to argue for your respective theological positions makes each of your arguments circular.LittleNipper wrote: ↑Tue Jan 23, 2024 2:13 pm The King James translation is correct of Revelation 1:6 And hath made us kings and priests unto God and his Father; to him be glory and dominion for ever and ever. Amen.
So you know what you're reading, Greek word order carries different amounts of meaning in different situations than it does in English. In this case, a better translation that carries exactly the ambiguity in English that it does in Greek would be "priests to his father and god." Whether either of "father" or "god" is capitalized is up to the reader. Whether "his" modifies both "father" and "god" or just "father" is up to the reader.
Obviously, the Revelator meant one of those readings to the exclusion of others, but one must read presumed authorial intention into that phrase rather than out of it.
My pronouns are he, him, and his.
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Re: Questions about Jesus and JW’s
Post #495The entire Bible builds upon itself and gives the believer willing to study a clearer and clearer picture of what GOD wants known regarding HIM. Colossians 2:9 is one of the clearest statements of the deity of Christ anywhere in the Bible: “In him [Christ] dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.” The word for “Godhead” here is theotés. According to this verse, Jesus Christ is God Incarnate. He embodies all (“the fulness”) of God (translated “the Deity” in the NIV). This truth aligns perfectly with Colossians 1:19, “God was pleased to have all his fullness dwell in him [Christ].”Difflugia wrote: ↑Tue Jan 23, 2024 3:37 pmonewithhim wrote: ↑Tue Jan 23, 2024 12:34 pmIn Revelation 1:6 it is speaking about Jesus, yes, and you notice that it speaks about "his God and Father." Therefore Jesus could not be God. Jesus HAS a God. And that God is his Father, Jehovah.The verse is truly ambiguous in Greek. Neither of you has a basis for claiming that a particular translation is correct other than the theological positions you're trying to prooftext. Using a particular reading of Revelation 1:6 to argue for your respective theological positions makes each of your arguments circular.LittleNipper wrote: ↑Tue Jan 23, 2024 2:13 pm The King James translation is correct of Revelation 1:6 And hath made us kings and priests unto God and his Father; to him be glory and dominion for ever and ever. Amen.
So you know what you're reading, Greek word order carries different amounts of meaning in different situations than it does in English. In this case, a better translation that carries exactly the ambiguity in English that it does in Greek would be "priests to his father and god." Whether either of "father" or "god" is capitalized is up to the reader. Whether "his" modifies both "father" and "god" or just "father" is up to the reader.
Obviously, the Revelator meant one of those readings to the exclusion of others, but one must read presumed authorial intention into that phrase rather than out of it.
Because the Godhead dwells bodily in Christ, Jesus could rightly claim that He and the Father are “one” (John 10:30). Because the fullness of God’s divine essence is present in the Son of God, Jesus could say to Philip, “Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father” (John 14:9).
In summary, the Godhead is the essence of the Divine Being; the Godhead is the one and only Deity. Jesus, the incarnate Godhead, entered our world and showed us exactly who God is: “No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God and is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known” (John 1:18; cf. Hebrews 1:3).
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Re: Questions about Jesus and JW’s
Post #496Paul refered to qualities the "dwelt in Jesus" being there as a result of Gods will. (compare colossians 1:19). Thus Paul could not be attributing infinity or omnipotence to Jesus as one cannot attribute or add to omnipotence. Just as referring to "human nature" means we share certain characteristisics but that doesn't mean there is not difference in rank, power and age, so Jesus perfectly reflecting Gods nature is not synonymous with him (Jesus) being equal in rank, power or age to YHWH (Jehovah).COLOSSIANS 2:9
For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.
The translation "Godhead" is misleading and some translators favor alternative renditions, which more accurately conveys the idea that Christ reflected YHWHS divine/ godly nature (not that YHWH literally lived inside Jesus or that Jesus /THE WORD was equal to Almighty God).
COLOSSIANS 2:9In short, "Like Father, like son" NOT "Father *is* son"
Christian Standard Bible
For the entire fullness of God's nature dwells bodily in Christ
Holman Christian Standard Bible
For the entire fullness of God's nature dwells bodily in Christ,
International Standard Version
because all the essence of deity inhabits him in bodily form
Weymouth New Testament
For it is in Christ that the fulness of God's nature dwells embodied, and in Him you are made complete
Christian Standard Bible
For the entire fullness of God's nature dwells bodily in Christ,
Good News Translation
For the full content of divine nature lives in Christ, in his humanity,
Holman Christian Standard Bible
For the entire fullness of God's nature dwells bodily in Christ,
International Standard Version
because all the essence of deity inhabits him in bodily form.
NET Bible
For in him all the fullness of deity lives in bodily form,
RELATED POSTS Colossians 1:19
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 881#934881
INDEX: More bible based ANSWERS
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681
"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681
"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8
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Re: Questions about Jesus and JW’s
Post #497WHAT DID JESUS MEAN WHEN HE SAID "IF YOU HAVE SEEN ME YOU HAVE SEEN THE FATHER" [JOHN 14:8] ?
I "SEE" WHAT YOU MEAN
The words used in John 14:7 which are translated as "seen" are a form of the NT Greek word horao. Notice the relationship between "know" and "see": 3 John 11 - "the one who does good is of God; the one who does evil has not seen [horao] God." And at 1 John 3:6 "No one who abides in Him sins; no one who sins has seen [horao] Him or knows Him." - NASB.
BIBLICAL DICTIONARIES
Thus it is clear that the Greek word in the account horao ("see") can mean the same thing as "abiding in" or "knowing," and have the figurative meaning of agreement in purpose and will with someone else. Note the following commentary:
CONCLUSION There is no real reason to insist that John 14:7, 9 shows Jesus as being equally God with his Father. Rather that understanding what he did and said was like knowing ("seeing") Jesus is totally in harmony with ("one" with) the Father in purpose so that we can "see" the Father's will in Jesus.
RELATED POSTS
JOHN 14 : 8, 9
Philip said to Him, “Lord, show us the Father, and it is sufficient for us.” Jesus said to him, “Have I been with you so long, and yet you have not known Me, Philip? He who has seen Me has seen the Father; so how can you say, ‘Show us the Father’?
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I "SEE" WHAT YOU MEAN
The words used in John 14:7 which are translated as "seen" are a form of the NT Greek word horao. Notice the relationship between "know" and "see": 3 John 11 - "the one who does good is of God; the one who does evil has not seen [horao] God." And at 1 John 3:6 "No one who abides in Him sins; no one who sins has seen [horao] Him or knows Him." - NASB.
BIBLICAL DICTIONARIES
"[Horao" means ] ... become aware (Gen. 37:1). (b) figuratively it comes to be used of intellectual or spiritual perception .... It also means ... attend to, know or have experienced (Deut. 11:2), or be concerned about something (Gen. 37:14; Is. 5:12)." [ ... ] "Besides the general meaning of to know, horao and its derivatives can mean to obtain knowledge". - The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology, Vol. 3, 1986 printing, Zondervan, pp. 513, 515, 518
Professor Joseph H. Thayer , the dean of New Testament scholars in America, tells us that John 14:7, 9 is in the category of "2. to see with the mind, to perceive, to KNOW." - Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament
Professor Joseph H. Thayer , the dean of New Testament scholars in America, tells us that John 14:7, 9 is in the category of "2. to see with the mind, to perceive, to KNOW." - Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament
Thus it is clear that the Greek word in the account horao ("see") can mean the same thing as "abiding in" or "knowing," and have the figurative meaning of agreement in purpose and will with someone else. Note the following commentary:
"... Statements that human beings have seen or will see God Himself do not refer to a perception of a physical aspect of God by human physical senses but a process of coming to some amount of understanding of God, often just a simple realization of His greatness or some other aspect of His nature, either by a revelatory vision (Isa. 6:15; Ezk. 1:26-28), or by their acquaintance with Jesus Christ (Jn 14:9, cf. 1:18)."“ Eerdmans, 1991. - The International Standard Bible Encyclopedia, vol. 4, p. 380
CONCLUSION There is no real reason to insist that John 14:7, 9 shows Jesus as being equally God with his Father. Rather that understanding what he did and said was like knowing ("seeing") Jesus is totally in harmony with ("one" with) the Father in purpose so that we can "see" the Father's will in Jesus.
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"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681
"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8
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Re: Questions about Jesus and JW’s
Post #498Explain how a "created being" can have the full essence of GOD and not be GOD! Did JESUS save? Did JESUS create? Did JESUS heal? What is it that the SON doesn't do so that HE isn't entirely equal with GOD the FATHER. Is not CHRIST the beginning and the ending of everything? Did not CHRIST create TIME and SPACE? Show me where this isn't so! Philippians 2:6-11JehovahsWitness wrote: ↑Tue Jan 23, 2024 9:21 pmPaul refered to qualities the "dwelt in Jesus" being there as a result of Gods will. (compare colossians 1:19). Thus Paul could not be attributing infinity or omnipotence to Jesus as one cannot attribute or add to omnipotence. Just as referring to "human nature" means we share certain characteristisics but that doesn't mean there is not difference in rank, power and age, so Jesus perfectly reflecting Gods nature is not synonymous with him (Jesus) being equal in rank, power or age to YHWH (Jehovah).COLOSSIANS 2:9
For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.
The translation "Godhead" is misleading and some translators favor alternative renditions, which more accurately conveys the idea that Christ reflected YHWHS divine/ godly nature (not that YHWH literally lived inside Jesus or that Jesus /THE WORD was equal to Almighty God).
COLOSSIANS 2:9In short, "Like Father, like son" NOT "Father *is* son"
Christian Standard Bible
For the entire fullness of God's nature dwells bodily in Christ
Holman Christian Standard Bible
For the entire fullness of God's nature dwells bodily in Christ,
International Standard Version
because all the essence of deity inhabits him in bodily form
Weymouth New Testament
For it is in Christ that the fulness of God's nature dwells embodied, and in Him you are made complete
Christian Standard Bible
For the entire fullness of God's nature dwells bodily in Christ,
Good News Translation
For the full content of divine nature lives in Christ, in his humanity,
Holman Christian Standard Bible
For the entire fullness of God's nature dwells bodily in Christ,
International Standard Version
because all the essence of deity inhabits him in bodily form.
NET Bible
For in him all the fullness of deity lives in bodily form,
RELATED POSTS Colossians 1:19
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 881#934881
King James Version
6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:
8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.
9 Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name:
10 That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth;
11 And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
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Re: Questions about Jesus and JW’s
Post #499LittleNipper wrote: ↑Tue Jan 23, 2024 11:16 pmExplain how a "created being" can have the full essence of GOD and not be GOD!JehovahsWitness wrote: ↑Tue Jan 23, 2024 9:21 pmPaul refered to qualities the "dwelt in Jesus" being there as a result of Gods will. (compare colossians 1:19). Thus Paul could not be attributing infinity or omnipotence to Jesus as one cannot attribute or add to omnipotence. Just as referring to "human nature" means we share certain characteristisics but that doesn't mean there is not difference in rank, power and age, so Jesus perfectly reflecting Gods nature is not synonymous with him (Jesus) being equal in rank, power or age to YHWH (Jehovah).COLOSSIANS 2:9
For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.
The translation "Godhead" is misleading and some translators favor alternative renditions, which more accurately conveys the idea that Christ reflected YHWHS divine/ godly nature (not that YHWH literally lived inside Jesus or that Jesus /THE WORD was equal to Almighty God).
COLOSSIANS 2:9In short, "Like Father, like son" NOT "Father *is* son"
Christian Standard Bible
For the entire fullness of God's nature dwells bodily in Christ
Holman Christian Standard Bible
For the entire fullness of God's nature dwells bodily in Christ,
International Standard Version
because all the essence of deity inhabits him in bodily form
Weymouth New Testament
For it is in Christ that the fulness of God's nature dwells embodied, and in Him you are made complete
Christian Standard Bible
For the entire fullness of God's nature dwells bodily in Christ,
Good News Translation
For the full content of divine nature lives in Christ, in his humanity,
Holman Christian Standard Bible
For the entire fullness of God's nature dwells bodily in Christ,
International Standard Version
because all the essence of deity inhabits him in bodily form.
NET Bible
For in him all the fullness of deity lives in bodily form,
RELATED POSTS Colossians 1:19
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 881#934881
THE scripture is clear enough ... Jesus is a reflects {quote} "the fulness of God's nature " {end quote}; he fully reflects God's personality and nature.
INDEX: More bible based ANSWERS
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681
"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681
"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8
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Re: Questions about Jesus and JW’s
Post #500Jesus said he was not equal with God. You can believe his words or you can reject them but if JESUS himself cannot convince you he knows his position relative to the Father (YHWH) what more can I say ?LittleNipper wrote: ↑Tue Jan 23, 2024 11:16 pm
What is it that the SON doesn't do so that HE isn't entirely equal with GOD the FATHER.

INDEX: More bible based ANSWERS
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681
"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681
"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8