Questions about Jesus and JW’s

[MissKate13]

1. Jehovah’s Witnesses say Jesus was “a god.” This is how the NWT reads (John 1:1).

Do JW’s believe Jesus was a true or false god?

2. JW’s say Jesus is a created being.

When was Jesus (capital or lower case g) created?

I look forward to your responses to one or both questions.

MissKate13

[Capbook]

You avoid the question here. Was Jesus partially dead?

John 19:33 says Jesus is dead not partially dead.

So it wasnt just a part of him that was dead all of him was dead. Correct?

Yes, all of Him in flesh was dead.

[2timothy316]

1 Peter 3:18
For Christ also suffered once for sins, the just for the unjust, that He might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh but made alive by the Spirit,(NKJV)
John 10:17-18
Therefore doth my Father love me, because I lay down my life, that I might take it again. No man taketh it from me, but I lay it down of myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This commandment have I received of my Father.(KJV)

Yes Jesus died; God [Almighty God] cannot die (see 1 Timothy 6:16 ). So Jesus cannot be Almighty God.

We believe Jesus in dual nature, His flesh dies (human nature), take back His life (Divine nature)
As Barnes understand Jesus as Father's equal, Jesus is also Almighty.

Hebrews 1:3
It is to show his claims to our reverence as sent from God-the last and greatest of the messengers which God bas sent to man. But, then it is a description of him "as he actually is" - the incarnate Son of God; the equal of the Father in human flesh.
(from Barnes' Notes)

What Barnes thinks is in conflict with Christ and the Bible. I'd recommend reading the Bible for yourself and not letting Barnes determine what you believe.

What does Jesus think? "The Father is greater than I." John 14:28

What does the Bible say? After Jesus death what is Jesus final position? Co-Ruler with his Father? Nope. "But when all things will have been subjected to him, then the Son himself will also subject himself to the One who subjected all things to him, that God may be all things to everyone." 1 Corinthians 15:28. This scripture clearly separates the two as one having complete rulership and the other being in subjection to the other. Not equal.

Your interpretation of 1 Cor 15:28 differ from JFB exegesis, they understand Jesus is co-equal with the Father.

I gave no interpretation. I read the Bible as it says. There is no reason to interpret 1 Cor 15:28 to mean something else that what it plainly says.
JFB has no authority over my understanding of the Bible. Thus I do not care how JFB understands anything. JFB is the lord over your faith, not mine.

[JehovahsWitness]

Yes, all of Him in flesh was dead.

But you believe there was a part of him, that wasn't flesh that didn't die, right ? So a part of him (that was flesh) died and another part of him (that wasnt flesh) didnt die. So, only a part of him died, correct?

[Capbook]

Yes, all of Him in flesh was dead.

But you believe there was a part of him, that wasn't flesh that didn't die, right ? So a part of him (that was flesh) died and another part of him (that wasnt flesh) didnt die. So, only a part of him died, correct?

I believe that "ground dust + breath of life (Spirit) = living soul. Gen 2:7.
When a person died dust return to earth, and the spirit return to God. Ecc 12:7.
As the soul is the union of dust and spirit, when a person dies, living soul dies.

Genesis 2:7
And the LORD God formed man of the dust of the ground, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living being.(NKJV)
Ecclesiastes 12:7
Then the dust will return to the earth as it was, And the spirit will return to God who gave it.(NKJV)
John 19:30
So when Jesus had received the sour wine, He said, "It is finished!" And bowing His head, He gave up His spirit.(NKJV)
Ezek 18:20 The soul that sinneth, it shall die.

[JehovahsWitness]

Yes, all of Him in flesh was dead.

But you believe there was a part of him, that wasn't flesh that didn't die, right ? So a part of him (that was flesh) died and another part of him (that wasnt flesh) didnt die. So, only a part of him died, correct?

When a person died dust return to earth, and the spirit return to God. Ecc 12:7.

So answer the question: is only a part of him dead ? Yes or No?

[Capbook]

Yes, all of Him in flesh was dead.

But you believe there was a part of him, that wasn't flesh that didn't die, right ? So a part of him (that was flesh) died and another part of him (that wasnt flesh) didnt die. So, only a part of him died, correct?

When a person died dust return to earth, and the spirit return to God. Ecc 12:7.

So answer the question: is only a part of him dead ? Yes or No?

If you mean Jesus Divinity did not die. Yes.

[onewithhim]

Yes, all of Him in flesh was dead.

But you believe there was a part of him, that wasn't flesh that didn't die, right ? So a part of him (that was flesh) died and another part of him (that wasnt flesh) didnt die. So, only a part of him died, correct?

When a person died dust return to earth, and the spirit return to God. Ecc 12:7.

So answer the question: is only a part of him dead ? Yes or No?

If you mean Jesus Divinity did not die. Yes.

So you believe that Jesus didn't really die. Then we are "still in our sins." (I Corinthians 15:17) The actual death of Jesus is what was needed to redeem humans from sin and death.

[Capbook]

1 Peter 3:18
For Christ also suffered once for sins, the just for the unjust, that He might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh but made alive by the Spirit,(NKJV)
John 10:17-18
Therefore doth my Father love me, because I lay down my life, that I might take it again. No man taketh it from me, but I lay it down of myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This commandment have I received of my Father.(KJV)

Yes Jesus died; God [Almighty God] cannot die (see 1 Timothy 6:16 ). So Jesus cannot be Almighty God.

We believe Jesus in dual nature, His flesh dies (human nature), take back His life (Divine nature)
As Barnes understand Jesus as Father's equal, Jesus is also Almighty.

Hebrews 1:3
It is to show his claims to our reverence as sent from God-the last and greatest of the messengers which God bas sent to man. But, then it is a description of him "as he actually is" - the incarnate Son of God; the equal of the Father in human flesh.
(from Barnes' Notes)

What Barnes thinks is in conflict with Christ and the Bible. I'd recommend reading the Bible for yourself and not letting Barnes determine what you believe.

What does Jesus think? "The Father is greater than I." John 14:28

What does the Bible say? After Jesus death what is Jesus final position? Co-Ruler with his Father? Nope. "But when all things will have been subjected to him, then the Son himself will also subject himself to the One who subjected all things to him, that God may be all things to everyone." 1 Corinthians 15:28. This scripture clearly separates the two as one having complete rulership and the other being in subjection to the other. Not equal.

Your interpretation of 1 Cor 15:28 differ from JFB exegesis, they understand Jesus is co-equal with the Father.

I gave no interpretation. I read the Bible as it says. There is no reason to interpret 1 Cor 15:28 to mean something else that what it plainly says.
JFB has no authority over my understanding of the Bible. Thus I do not care how JFB understands anything. JFB is the lord over your faith, not mine.

How you understand it, that is your interpretation.
JFB, the three of them had published books and commentaries, that I would rather inclined to use.
Jamieson, Fausset & Brown - Text Commentaries
The commentaries of Robert Jamieson, A.R. Fausset & David Brown were originally published in 1871. In accordance with Scripture. (quoted online)

[JehovahsWitness]

JFB, the three of them had published books and commentaries, that I would rather inclined to use.
Jamieson, Fausset & Brown - Text Commentaries
The commentaries of Robert Jamieson, A.R. Fausset & David Brown were originally published in 1871. In accordance with Scripture. (quoted online)

Thèse men just just their own interpretation. They are just imperfect humans prone to error and the limits of their own theology like anyone else. Why should they be considered the final authority on any matter? Especially if their conclusions contradict scripture.

When citing them you do well to keep in mind many do not hold their opinion any higher then their own.

[2timothy316]

1 Peter 3:18
For Christ also suffered once for sins, the just for the unjust, that He might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh but made alive by the Spirit,(NKJV)
John 10:17-18
Therefore doth my Father love me, because I lay down my life, that I might take it again. No man taketh it from me, but I lay it down of myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This commandment have I received of my Father.(KJV)

Yes Jesus died; God [Almighty God] cannot die (see 1 Timothy 6:16 ). So Jesus cannot be Almighty God.

We believe Jesus in dual nature, His flesh dies (human nature), take back His life (Divine nature)
As Barnes understand Jesus as Father's equal, Jesus is also Almighty.

Hebrews 1:3
It is to show his claims to our reverence as sent from God-the last and greatest of the messengers which God bas sent to man. But, then it is a description of him "as he actually is" - the incarnate Son of God; the equal of the Father in human flesh.
(from Barnes' Notes)

What Barnes thinks is in conflict with Christ and the Bible. I'd recommend reading the Bible for yourself and not letting Barnes determine what you believe.

What does Jesus think? "The Father is greater than I." John 14:28

What does the Bible say? After Jesus death what is Jesus final position? Co-Ruler with his Father? Nope. "But when all things will have been subjected to him, then the Son himself will also subject himself to the One who subjected all things to him, that God may be all things to everyone." 1 Corinthians 15:28. This scripture clearly separates the two as one having complete rulership and the other being in subjection to the other. Not equal.

Your interpretation of 1 Cor 15:28 differ from JFB exegesis, they understand Jesus is co-equal with the Father.

I gave no interpretation. I read the Bible as it says. There is no reason to interpret 1 Cor 15:28 to mean something else that what it plainly says.
JFB has no authority over my understanding of the Bible. Thus I do not care how JFB understands anything. JFB is the lord over your faith, not mine.

How you understand it, that is your interpretation.

No it isn't. It is called reading comprehension. As you read my words now there is no need to try to interpret them to find some hidden or different meaning. 1 Cor 15:28 contains no hidden meaning. Just read it as you see it. Of course this will be impossible for someone that feels they must change everything they read so that it fits their dogma. If one reads something in the Bible then says to themselves, 'that can't be right because it doesn't fit what I believe' then I'd recommend tossing the Bible out the window, as it does them no good.

Reading comprehension is the ability to process written text, understand its meaning, and to integrate with what the reader already knows. Reading comprehension relies on two abilities that are connected to each other: word reading and language comprehension.

Interpretation is an explanation or opinion of what something means. I gave no explanation or opinion of what 1 Cor 15:28 means. So when the Bible says "the Son himself will also subject himself to the One", that is a quote. This is not my explanation or opinion of the text. What you read from the Bible is what you get from the Bible. If you change what it says then that is YOUR interpretation, you're assigning it an explanation and you're giving your opinion. I am not.