It is written in John 1:18
No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.”
And Jesus said in John 14:6-7
King James Version
6 Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me.
7 If ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also: and from henceforth ye know him, and have seen him.”
So if no man has seen God at any time, how do we reconcile what seems to be a contradiction? When you understand the identity of the Son of God being the very Word of God, then you will understand there is no contradiction.
It is the Word OF God that was made flesh in the man Jesus. And it is BY God’s Word and words that we get to know and see what God the Father is really like, His likes and dislikes. It is by God’s Word and words we get to see and know the will of God the Father.
In this way, by looking at the words and actions of Jesus Christ we get to see and know what The invisible God is really like.
We don’t see the outward image of God in Christ, but rather we see the inward image of God in Jesus Christ, as God was in Christ.
Colossians 1:15
Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature:
When you understand this mystery then there is a harmony to the text without contradiction.
Peace and God bless
No man has seen God at any time
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Re: No man has seen God at any time
Post #61Not according to Jesus.
JOHN 17:3
This means everlasting life, their coming to know you, the only true God, and the one whom you sent, Jesus Christ.
can you see the word AND? (remember the illustration of the apple not being the orange?)
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"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681
"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8
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Re: No man has seen God at any time
Post #62Yes, there are two on the table.JehovahsWitness wrote: ↑Sat Aug 17, 2024 5:54 amNot according to Jesus.
can you see the word AND? (remember the illustration of the apple not being the orange?)JOHN 17:3
This means everlasting life, their coming to know you, the only true God, and the one whom you sent, Jesus Christ.
And there are two on the true God.
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Re: No man has seen God at any time
Post #63Not according to Jesus.Capbook wrote: ↑Sat Aug 17, 2024 5:57 amYes, there are two on the table.JehovahsWitness wrote: ↑Sat Aug 17, 2024 5:54 amNot according to Jesus Christ .
can you see the word AND? (remember the illustration of the apple not being the orange?)JOHN 17:3
This means everlasting life, their coming to know you, the only true God, and the one whom you sent, Jesus Christ.
And there are two on the true God.
Last edited by JehovahsWitness on Mon Aug 19, 2024 4:06 pm, edited 1 time in total.
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"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681
"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8
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Re: No man has seen God at any time
Post #64But according to 1 John 5:20. "in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life."JehovahsWitness wrote: ↑Sat Aug 17, 2024 6:12 amNot according to Jesus.Capbook wrote: ↑Sat Aug 17, 2024 5:57 amYes, there are two on the table.JehovahsWitness wrote: ↑Sat Aug 17, 2024 5:54 amNot according to Jesus.
can you see the word AND? (remember the illustration of the apple not being the orange?)JOHN 17:3
This means everlasting life, their coming to know you, the only true God, and the one whom you sent, Jesus Christ.
And there are two on the true God.
That eternal life is in the Father's Son Jesus Christ. (1John 5:11)
1 John 5:11
1 And this is the record, that God hath given to us eternal life, and this life is in his Son.
KJV
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Re: No man has seen God at any time
Post #651 John 5v20 has been interpreted correctly by Jesus Christ himself. See Post 40 viewtopic.php?f=38&t=41625&start=40#p1153803
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How should 1 John 5:20 be properly understood?
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"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681
"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8
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Re: No man has seen God at any time
Post #66"What is said here in John 17:3 of the only true God seems said in opposition to the gods whom the pagans worshipped; not in opposition to Jesus Christ himself, who is called the true God by John, in 1 John 5:20."JehovahsWitness wrote: ↑Mon Aug 19, 2024 4:25 am1 John 5v20 has been interpreted correctly by Jesus Christ himself. See Post 40 viewtopic.php?f=38&t=41625&start=40#p1153803
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Re: No man has seen God at any time
Post #67Capbook wrote: ↑Mon Aug 19, 2024 7:14 am...JehovahsWitness wrote: ↑Mon Aug 19, 2024 4:25 am1 John 5v20 has been interpreted correctly by Jesus Christ himself. See Post 40 viewtopic.php?f=38&t=41625&start=40#p1153803
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Whatever the reason, his reasons, Jesus is the final word on how to interpret the expression True God. We let the bible be interpreted by Jesus not by Clarke.
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How should 1 John 5:20 be properly understood?
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"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681
"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8
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Re: No man has seen God at any time
Post #68Jesus twice testified that the true God is he who has been made known to us in Him. Why should he again add, This is the true God? It applies, indeed, most suitably to Christ;JehovahsWitness wrote: ↑Mon Aug 19, 2024 11:12 amCapbook wrote: ↑Mon Aug 19, 2024 7:14 am...JehovahsWitness wrote: ↑Mon Aug 19, 2024 4:25 am1 John 5v20 has been interpreted correctly by Jesus Christ himself. See Post 40 viewtopic.php?f=38&t=41625&start=40#p1153803
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Whatever the reason, his reasons, Jesus is the final word on how to interpret the expression True God. We let the bible be interpreted by Jesus not by Clarke.
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Some called it tautology.
1 John 5:20
The Arians apply this passage to the Father, as though the Apostle should again repeat that he is the true God. But nothing could be more frigid than such a repetition. It has already twice testified that the true God is he who has been made known to us in Christ, why should he again add, This is the true God? It applies, indeed, most suitably to Christ; for after having taught us that Christ is the guide by whose hand we are led to God, he now, by way of amplifying, affirms that Christ is that God, lest we should think that we are to seek further; and he confirms this view by what is added, and eternal life. (Calvin)
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Re: No man has seen God at any time
Post #69HOW SHOULD 1 JOHN 5:20 BE PROPERLY UNDERSTOOD?
The verses ends speaking about ... [3] This is the true God Who (which of the two aforemention) is "the true God"? would it be the Son or The Father, since both are alluded to in the verse.
John speaks of two different individuals in this passage. One is identified as [1] the Son of God. But there is someone else alluded to also. Notice where John speaks of "his" son. Who has a son called Jesus Christ? Would that not be speaking about Jehovah (YHWH) The Father?1 JOHN 5:20 King James Bible
And we know that [1] the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in [2] his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life.
The verses ends speaking about ... [3] This is the true God Who (which of the two aforemention) is "the true God"? would it be the Son or The Father, since both are alluded to in the verse.
So we see from Jesus that the expression here "the true god" applies not to the son but to the Father. In the light of Jesus' words it seems the proper understanding of 1 JOHN 5:20 is that Jesus came to help mankind understand the true God, and through Jesus (by means of /in) Jesus we can be in union with YHWH the Father (the true God).ANSWER To understand who the expression "The True God" refers to, we must go to where Jesus himself speaks of the same individual. In his final prayer with his Apostles, Jesus addressed his Father. He said the following words...
JOHN 17:3
This means everlasting life, their coming to know you, the only true God, and the one whom you sent, Jesus Christ.
To learn more please go to to other posts related to ...
GOD, JESUS and ...THE "TRINITY TEXTS" DEBUNKED
INDEX: More bible based ANSWERS
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"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681
"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" - Romans 14:8
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Re: No man has seen God at any time
Post #701 John 5:20JehovahsWitness wrote: ↑Wed Aug 21, 2024 11:17 am HOW SHOULD 1 JOHN 5:20 BE PROPERLY UNDERSTOOD?
John speaks of two different individuals in this passage. One is identified as [1] the Son of God. But there is someone else alluded to also. Notice where John speaks of "his" son. Who has a son called Jesus Christ? Would that not be speaking about Jehovah (YHWH) The Father?1 JOHN 5:20 King James Bible
And we know that [1] the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in [2] his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life.
The verses ends speaking about ... [3] This is the true God Who (which of the two aforemention) is "the true God"? would it be the Son or The Father, since both are alluded to in the verse.
So we see from Jesus that the expression here "the true god" applies not to the son but to the Father. In the light of Jesus' words it seems the proper understanding of 1 JOHN 5:20 is that Jesus came to help mankind understand the true God, and through Jesus (by means of /in) Jesus we can be in union with YHWH the Father (the true God).ANSWER To understand who the expression "The True God" refers to, we must go to where Jesus himself speaks of the same individual. In his final prayer with his Apostles, Jesus addressed his Father. He said the following words...
JOHN 17:3
This means everlasting life, their coming to know you, the only true God, and the one whom you sent, Jesus Christ.
To learn more please go to to other posts related to ...
GOD, JESUS and ...THE "TRINITY TEXTS" DEBUNKED
If it refers to God as such, or to the word "true" it would be mere tautology, or a mere truism. The rendering would then be, "That we may know the true God, and we are in the true God: this is the true God, and eternal life." Can we believe that an inspired man would affirm gravely, and with so much solemnity, and as if it were a truth of so much magnitude, that the true God is the true God?
The grammatical construction favors to Jesus. Christ is the immediate antecedent of the pronoun "this". This would be regarded as the obvious and certain construction so far as the grammar is concerned, unless there were something in the thing affirmed which led us to seek some more remote and less obvious antecedent.
( Barnes.)