Peace to you Wootah,
The only question in the OP is the title of the thread. I think I did face that. You bring up verses that are written in the OT of the Father, and some of those verses or their content are being applied to the Son.
This makes sense, since the Son is the HEIR (who received all things from His Father, including titles, honor, duties, and authority.)
Here is a specific example of what I mean:
Philippians 2:10–11 → Isaiah 45:23
OT (Isa 45:23): “By myself I have sworn… that to me every knee shall bow, every tongue shall swear allegiance.â€
NT (Phil 2:10–11): “…so that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow… and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord (Kyrios), to the glory of God the Father.â€
→ The universal worship and confession that Isaiah says belongs exclusively to YHWH is here transferred to Jesus.
I don't claim to know what Paul was thinking, but while that (the verse) may once have been applicable only of the Father (YHWH), it is now also true and applicable of the Son. At His name every knee will bend, and every tongue confess that He is Lord. Because the Father (YHWH) appointed His Son and Heir to this position.
"Kiss the Son, lest He (the Father) be angry."
And if we swear allegiance to the Son, it is the same as swearing allegiance to the Father. If we obey the Son, it is the same as obeying the Father. Not because Christ is YHWH, but because He is the Son, Heir, Representative, Holy and Chosen One of God (YHWH). The one of whom the Father appointed the head of all His possessions. (John 17:6; 10:29; Isaiah 49:5-7 <- which also speaks of knees bowing to the Servant of God.) This doesn't diminish the Father (YHWH) - just the opposite - it elevates the Father even higher:
Christ is the HOLY One. His Father (YHWH) is the MOST Holy One.
The Philippians verse acknowledges this as well, because at the end of the verse, everything is all done
"to the glory of God, the Father."
Isn’t it extremely wrong to take verses about God and apply them to a not-God creature?
It is not wrong to apply them to the Son of God, who is also the Heir of God.
Isaiah 45 is even more condemning of your understanding of the NT?
22 “Turn to me and be saved,
all you ends of the earth;
for I am God, and there is no other.
23 By myself I have sworn,
my mouth has uttered in all integrity
a word that will not be revoked:
Before me every knee will bow;
by me every tongue will swear.
24 They will say of me, ‘In the Lord alone
are deliverance and strength.’â€
All who have raged against him
will come to him and be put to shame.
25 But all the descendants of Israel
will find deliverance in the Lord
and will make their boast in him.
How dare the NT use verses related to God and apply them to Jesus?
I think this has been answered above.
**
Now if you had a statement from Christ that He is [YHWH], then you would have a case. But not only is there no such statement, there is at least one statement that speaks against that claim, such as Psalm 110:1.
Peace again to you,
your servant and a slave of Christ,
tammy