(jimspeiser - Thu Dec 23, 2004 7:49 pm)
".....How do we know this? How do we come to assume that God's good is really good? Sure, we are told as much by the Bible. But it's one thing to accept the Bible as God's word....."
This is of course, the entire issue. How can biblegod be "good" and yet "create evil"?
(GreenLight311 - Wed Jan 05, 2005 5:06 am)
".......Also - I cannot say with certainty whether God created Evil as Evil or whether God created the being and then it became Evil......"
I'd say it was the former, as per this:
(Isaiah 45:7 - KJV)
".... I make peace and CREATE EVIL: I the Lord do all these things."
Of course, it's tough to understand what is going on in Isaiah 45:7 after we read this:
(Proverbs 14:22 - KJV)
"Do they not ERR that DEVISE EVIL? but mercy and truth shall be to them that devise good."
or this:
(Habakkuk 1:13 - KJV)
"Thou art of purer eyes than to BEHOLD EVIL and CANST NOT LOOK ON INIQUITY...."
Even the EVIL that biblegod himself creates?
According to this:
(Isaiah 44:2 - RSV)
Thus says the LORD who made you, who formed you from the womb and will help you....
and this:
(Psalm 51:5 - KJV)
Behold I was SHAPEN IN INIQUITY and in sin did my mother conceive me....
biblegod creates only sinners in the womb (forms and shapes them "in iniquity"), even though according to Habakkuk 1:13, biblegod can
"not look on" iniquity!
IMO, the following verses are not the "word" of any deity:
(Numbers 31:17/18 - KJV)17 Now therefore kill every male among the little ones, and kill every woman that hath known man by lying with him. 18 But all the women children, that have not known a man by lying with him, keep alive for yourselves.
To me, these verses are disgusting (in the same manner we find the child sex abuses that are occasionally going on in Indonesia in the aftermath of the tsunami), as is the other violence in the OT. How can this be the "word" of a "good" God?
(GreenLight311 - Thu Jan 13, 2005 1:30 pm).....Premarital sex (adultery), masturbation, pornography, orgies (I assume you mean sex with multiple partners), gay sex, these are all sins.....
By what authority do you make this claim? The bible? How can a demonstrably errant text be the "divinely inspired" "word" of "perfect" biblegod?..and....how can you base any dogma upon such a text? I'll give you some examples:
ABSENCE OF EVIDENCE FOR BIBLICAL "HISTORY"
(Norman F. Cantor - 'The Sacred Chain' - page 51)
The first millennium of Jewish history as presented in the Bible has no empirical foundation whatsoever.
(Harold Leidner - 'The Fabrication of the Christ Myth')
The gospel story is an artificial, non-historical work. It has been fabricated from source materials that can be identified and traced to their incorporation in the gospels. There is not a particle of hard evidence that "Jesus of Nazareth" ever existed.
(Magnus Magnusson - The Archaeology of the Bible Lands - BC, page 76)
"The Bible writers projected backwards into time the kind of political rivalry that was happening in their own day (6th c BC) in order to explain that rivalry and perhaps justify the Israelite position over current border disputes."
BIBLICAL HISTORICAL ERROR
(Daniel 5:2 - KJV)
"Belshazzar, whiles he tasted the wine, commanded to bring the golden and silver vessels which HIS FATHER NEBUCHADNEZZAR had taken..."
Belshazzar was the son of Nabodinus and not Nebuchadnezzar.
(Daniel 5:31 - KJV)
"And Dairus the Median took the kingdom...."
The conquerer was Cyrus the Persian and not Dairus the Mede. A good article on the errancy of Daniel can be found at:
http://www.infidels.org/library/magazin ... nie96.html
(Luke 2:2 - KJV)
(And this taxing was first made when Cyrenius was governor of Syria)
(Matthew 2:1 - KJV)
1 "Now when Jesus was born in Bethlehem of Judea in the days of HEROD THE KING.....3 When Herod the king had heard these things...
Herod died in 4BCE (see
http://www.encyclopedia.com/html/h/herod.asp) and Quirinius was in power at 6 CE., a gap of 10 years, making the gospel text historically impossible as far as both of them happening at once. There is also no extra-biblical corroboration anywhere of the alleged slaughter of infants by Herod. A good article on the Quirinius issue by Richard Carrier can be read at:
http://www.infidels.org/library/modern/ ... inius.html
FAILED PROPHECIES
Isaiah predicts the Nile will dry up:
(Isaiah 19:5 - RSV)
And the waters of the Nile will be dried up, and the river will be parched and dry;
The Nile has never stopped flowing and thus has never dried up.
Ezekiel predicts that Egypt will be uninhabited for 40 years:
(Ezekiel 29:10/11 - KJV)
10 "Behold therefore I am against thee, and against thy rivers, and I will make the land of Egypt utterly waste and desolate, from the tower of Syene even unto the border of Ethiopia." 11 "No foot of man shall pass through it, nor foot of beast shall pass through it, neither shall it be inhabited forty years."
Egypt has never been uninhabited by man or beast for a period of 40 years.
Ezekiel predicts that Nebuchadnezzar will conquer and plunder Egypt:
(Ezekiel 29:19 - KJV)
"Therefore thus saith the Lord God; Behold I will give the land of Egypt unto Nebuchadnezzar king of Babylon; and he shall take her spoil and take her prey; and it shall be the wages for his army."
Nebuchadnezzar never conquered and plundered Egypt.
Ezekiel predicts that Tyre will never be rebuilt:
(Ezekiel 26:14 - KJV)
"And I will make thee like the top of a rock: thou shalt be a place to spread nets upon; thou shalt be built no more: for I the Lord have spoken it, saith the Lord God."
Tyre is a thriving metropolis today and Lebanon's 4th largest city. You can read more about Tyre here:
http://souwar.yaacoub.com/index.php?template=tyre The page includes a brief history and some pix.
"Jesus" predicts that believers will do the miraculous "works" that he does, and more...:
(John 14:12 - KJV)"Verily, verily I say unto you, He that believeth on me, the works that I do shall he do also; and GREATER works than these shall he do; because I go unto my father."
Here is a list of some of the aformentioned works:(Some WORKS of "Jesus" - compiled from the "gospel" stories)
"Jesus" restores a deformed limb to normal:
(Luke 6:6/10 - KJV)
6...and there was a man whose right hand was withered. 10 And looking round about upon them all, he said unto the man, "Stretch forth they hand." And he did so: and his hand was restored whole as the other.
"Jesus" restores life to the decomposing body of a man who was dead for four days:
(John 11:17/43/44 - KJV)
17 Then when Jesus came, he found that he had lain in the grave four days already 43 And when he thus had spoken, he cried with a loud voice, "Lazarus, come forth." 44 And he that was dead came forth....
"Jesus" does food multiplication, feeding 5,000 after having starting out with only 5 loaves of bread and two fish:
(Mark 6:38/42/44 - KJV)
38 He said unto them, "How many loaves have ye?" And when they knew, they say "Five, and two fishes". 42 And they did all eat, and were filled. 44 And they that did eat of the loaves were about five thousand men.
"Jesus" heals 10 people at once who had leprosy:
(Luke 17:12/14 - KJV)
12 And as he entered into a certain village, there he met ten men that were lepers, which stood afar off. 14 ...and it came to pass that as they went, they were cleansed.
"Jesus" has total command over the forces of Nature:
(Matthew 8:24/26 - KJV)
24 And behold there arose a great tempest in the sea, insomuch that the ship was covered with the waves: but he was asleep. 26 ...Then he arose and rebuked the winds and the sea and there was a great calm.
"Jesus" turns water into wine:
(John 2:7/10 - KJV)
7 Jesus saith unto them, "Fill the waterpots with water." And they filled them up to the brim. 10 ....but thou hast kept the good wine till now.
"Jesus" reattaches a severed body part without surgery:
(Luke 22:50/51 - KJV)
50 And one of them smote the servant of the high priest, and cut off his right ear. 51 And Jesus answered and said, "Suffer ye thus far." And he touched his ear and healed him.
I have never seen believers do these works, as per John 14:12, such as rasing the dead, stopping hurricanes, etc.
INCONGRUITY
RO 3:23 - "..all have sinned and come short of the glory of God" and IS 64:6 "..all our righteousnesses are like filthy rags" (NKJ)---contrast these two with:
MT 9:13 - " ...
I did not come to call the righteous, but sinners to repentance" (NKJ)
....implying that some are not sinners, but are indeed righteous...who are these?..how did they get righteous?...no "filthy rags", huh?
Is the following the work of a "good" God?
(Ezekiel 18:20 - KJV)
.....The son shall not bear the iniquity of the father, neither shall the father bear the iniquity of the son:....
...VERSUS...
(2 Samuel 12:14 - KJV)....Howbeit, because by this deed thou hast given great occasion to the enemies of the Lord to blaspheme, THE CHILD also that is born unto thee SHALL SURELY DIE."
The Ezekiel and 2 Samuel verses above are in direct contradiction. Additionally, the Ezekiel passage applies to "Jesus" as well, since he would have allegedly died for the sins of his alleged mother Mary, and her alleged father (who would have been "Jesus'" grandfather on his mother's side.)
WHY DIDN'T EVERYONE HAVE BIBLES?
(Luke 2:10 - KJV)
"And the angel said unto them, Fear not: for, behold, I bring you good tidings of great joy which shall be to ALL people."
Since as per Christian dogma, no one can "be saved" by works, wouldn't it have been very easy for the "angel" to pop in over in the Western Hemisphere and give the same "good tidings" to the Natives of the Americas in their own languages, rather than having all of those "heathen savages" "go to hell" while waiting centuries for Columbus, etc. to get here? And was the slaughter of the Aztecs by Cortez "Godly" behavior? If biblegod wanted "all men to be saved" so badly, the Native American peoples, etc. should have all had bibles already when the Europeans got here.
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As I have said before, everyone has the right to practice whatever religion they want to, or to practice no religion at all if that is what they choose. I see Spirituality as an Internal Process, the Evolvement and Development of the Divine within, and I see it as being the same for everyone, regardless of religion. This Process is exclusive of religion which is merely an external framework (e.g. tradition, observances, ritual, dogma) in which Spirituality is supposed to Operate.
While I can appreciate verses of admirable Philosophy in the bible, such as "love your neighbor as yourself", etc., when it comes to such exclusionist claims as "the true religion", defining "sin", "the
only way to be saved", and "inerrant word of God", such claims demand extraordinary proofs in order to be considered valid, and thus worthy of acceptance as per said claims. A "perfect" God, should be able to deliver a book that is perfect historically, archaeologically, logically, textually and prophetically, via the alleged "divinely inspired" writers and scribes.
A good book on biblical Esotericism and its Pagan roots is 'Who is This King of Glory?' by the late Dr.Alvin Boyd Kuhn viewable and readable on line at:
http://members.tripod.com/~pc93/kuhn.htm Esotericism and Allegory in Myth and Religious Drama are one thing. Claiming said Myth and Drama as literal "fact" and "history", and constructing legalistic exclusionist dogma upon said literalist "interpretations" of those texts is another.....
K