WinePusher wrote:For purposes of discussion I'll agree that John copied Philo. Now, this only means hat a very small part of the Gospel was copied, only the first chapter. The rest of the Gospel is unaccounted for. Where did the information in the Gospel come from if it was not written by an eyewitness?
Murad wrote:Two words; Oral Tradition.
If you want to ascribe the contents of the Gospels to oral tradition then you will have to admit that Jesus Christ actually existed and rose from the dead. Remember that a community of people would not orally pass on stories or events if they were not of great magnitude and if they did not actually happen. An event would generally not be orally transmitted if it was fiction and if it was not of great magnitude.
Murad wrote:If all 4 canonical Gospels were "Inspired" by God; why did God purposely differ in what the Cross said?
And above His head they put up the charge against Him which read, THIS IS JESUS THE KING OF THE JEWS.
"Matthew 27:37
The inscription of the charge against Him read, THE KING OF THE JEWS.
"Mark 15:26
Now there was also an inscription above Him, THIS IS THE KING OF THE JEWS.
"Luke 23:38
Pilate also wrote an inscription and put it on the cross. It was written, JESUS THE NAZARENE, THE KING OF THE JEWS.
"John 19:19
Very, very, very minor discrepencies. Every single Cross says "The King of the Jews." Luke and Mark are identical and Matthew and John are also identical. Also notice that these are omitted discrepencies. Since Mark wrote first and his inscription is the most basic his is the correct one that was on the cross verbatim.
WinePusher wrote:The explanation that the eyewitness John wrote the Gospel of John is supported by the text itself. How If it was not an eye witness, then how was the information about Jesus Christ recieved by the writer?
Murad wrote:Like all the other Gnostic Gospels; they were written by historians. By the way; do you have any evidence to prove your belief that John wrote "The Gospel According to John"... You do realise many modern day scholars believe "Mark, Mathhew, Luke, John" were Pen-Names dont you?
Modern scholars also believe that eyewitnesses and the evangelists wrote the accounts. But the explanations that "historians" wrote the Gospels doesn't explain anything. Unless you can give a name or a specific person then your explanation fails because it is simply inadequate. But here's my evidence:
Point A: John did not use the other Synoptic Gospels as a source.
Point B: John's Gospel is significantly different from the Synoptics in areas such as style, emphasis and demeanor, but agrees with the synoptics on major events in Christ's ministry.
Point C: Since John did not copy from the Synoptics, but lists many events of Jesus' life that agree with the Synoptics (such as the passion narratives), it is reasonable to assume that John wrote from the perspective as an eye-witness.
WinePusher wrote:If an eye witness did not write the Gospel, then what were there sources of information? Unless a better rival explanation can be proposed, then the explanation of John writing the Book that bears his name stands.
Murad wrote:The bible itself explains this; its from hearsay & Oral Tradition. Let me give you a biblical example. In the most crucial juncture of Jesus' life; all the disciples forsook Jesus & fled:
Then everyone deserted him and fled.(Mark 14:50)
Murad wrote:The disciples heard from hearsay that Jesus died on the cross. So when Jesus appeared to the disciples; you could imagine their reaction.
Actually, The beloved disciple (the one whom I believe wrote John's Gospel) was at the foot of the Cross. I understand your argument, but it is not what eyewitness testimony is. Eyewitness testimony does not mean that eyewitness observed with their own eyes every single step of Jesus, rather it means that they lived in the same time period as Jesus and were physically close to the events.
WinePusher wrote:Matthew and Luke only quoted partly from Mark, not wholly.
Murad wrote:No one claimed Mark was quoted "wholly"(In Matthew & Luke); but the writer did not credit the source(Mark); so again another sign of plagiarism.
What need is their to credit the source? You're applying modern theft laws to the ancient world which isn't productive. The ancient world did not operate by the same laws that the 21st century does.