Sex and the Bible

[Angel]

What is sex?

Here's a view from one website (its not a scholarly based website from what I can tell but was still helpful) regarding what sex is according to the Bible:

For this cause a man shall leave his father and mother, and cleave to his wife, and they shall become one flesh. (Genesis 2:24, The Scriptures)

The Hebrew phrase "echad basar" means "one flesh" or "one body" and literally describes the physical act of the penis penetrating into the body of another person. More specifically, it refers to a man and a woman joining their bodies together in penile-vaginal sexual intercourse. For example, a husband and wife join together at night and become "one flesh" or "one body". They become "one flesh" during the act of sexual intercourse. What is important to understand is that being "one flesh" with someone is not a state of existence; it is a state of action.

Most Believers already understand that a man and a woman become "one flesh" through sexual intercourse. What many do not understand is that a man and a man may technically become "one flesh" as well, although this is an abomination and is forbidden throughout Scripture. However, a woman and a woman CANNOT become "one flesh", simply because they lack the physical equipment necessary for that possibility. They might be sexually intimate, but they can never become “one flesh� as defined in Scripture. In order for this “echad basar� act to occur, a penetrating male must be present, which is why it is not possible for women to ever be one flesh with each other. Sexual penetration is the act of joining together as one flesh.

Source: http://www.righteouswarriors.com/contro ... cle11.html
The section entitled, One Flesh.

So I'll ask the debate questions..

1. Acording to the Bible, what is sex? Is the article I quoted from correct and therefore according to the writers of the Bible, oral sex and other non-intercourse sex acts (sex as we call it today) not considered sex?

2. Do the explanations in the quoted article accurately explain why the Bible is silent on the issue of same-sex acts between women unlike the condemnation of same-sex acts between men?

[Slopeshoulder]

The passage referenced in the OP is too literal about bodies. The bible in referring to body is referring to full self, as experienced and presented in lived life. Two existent beings, two selves, two lives, two centers of action, longing, hope, suffering, etc become as one, both practically and spiritually/psychologically. I'm sure a biblical theologian could elaborate.

Genitalia are secondary and not really the point.

And you know this how?

I recall it from classes in divinity school at yale in biblical exegesis and sexual ethics. But it was a while ago ('85-'87).

So the Bible means what Yale Divinity school says it means?

Whatever gave you that idea? You can't be serious.
Why the sneering hostility? and twice?

It means that the greatest biblical scholars in the world are better sources of reliable information than some hack fringe article and some amatuer dudes on the internet. Not just yale, this includes many great divinity schools, academic associations and peer reviewed journals. If you question the value of that, you undermine civilization. I simply reported what I spent time and money to learn, the part I remembered. If you prefer to be a leveler and seriously engage the nonsense quoted in the OP, knock yourself out.
Jehovahswitness did a good post too.
What have you got, other than one line jabs?

[Angel]

For this cause a man shall leave his father and mother, and cleave to his wife, and they shall become one flesh. (Genesis 2:24, The Scriptures)

The Hebrew phrase "echad basar" means "one flesh" or "one body" and literally describes the physical act of the penis penetrating into the body of another person. More specifically, it refers to a man and a woman joining their bodies together in penile-vaginal sexual intercourse. For example, a husband and wife join together at night and become "one flesh" or "one body". They become "one flesh" during the act of sexual intercourse. What is important to understand is that being "one flesh" with someone is not a state of existence; it is a state of action.

Most Believers already understand that a man and a woman become "one flesh" through sexual intercourse.

....

Source: http://www.righteouswarriors.com/contro ... cle11.html
The section entitled, One Flesh.

# QUESTION Does the expression "one flesh" as used in Genesis 2:24 refer to penile-vaginal sexual intercourse?

No; while the word “flesh� (ba·sar′) IS used in Leviticus 15:2, 3 with reference to the man’s genital organ, the word is used much more frequently in a general sense to refer to the soft substance of a physical body, whether of man, beast, bird, or fish" or parts thereof (see ; Le 17:11-14; De 28:53-57; 2Ki 6:28-; Le 17:15, 16; De 14:21). Notice the first occurence of the word in scripture at Genesis 2: 21, where it refers, not to Adams genitals, but to the flesh surrounding his ribcage on his chest.

KINSHIP

The hebrew word for "flesh" "basar" is also often used to simply refer to a distinct species or "kind" of physical creature (see Ge 6:17; Ge 9:3, 4; Ex 22:31) as well as metaphorically in scripture to refer to close kinship. For example between Jacob and his father-in-law Laben "Then Laban said to him, "You are my own flesh and blood." [...]" - Genesis 29:14 NIV (compare Gen 3:23, 37:27; 2Sa 5:1 Ge 2:23).

So far the above information just shows that the word "flesh" in the Hebrew language has more than one meaning.

SEX OR MARRIAGE?

It also should be noted that the Hebrew did have a word which covered sexual intercourse, (yada) and this word is lacking in the sequence of events in Genesis 2: 19-24).

There is more than one way to refer to sex and that can be either with one word or phrase and the other way is through description. For instance, you mention the Hebrew word "yada" which is used in Genesis 4:1.
Genesis 4:1-
1And Adam knew Eve his wife; and she conceived, and bare Cain, and said, I have gotten a man from the LORD. (KJV)

The one word "knew" in this passage is meant here as a euphemism for sex but lets look at one descriptive way to refer to sex, e.g. Leviticus 20:13.

Leviticus 20:13
If a man also lie with mankind, as he lieth with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination: they shall surely be put to death; their blood shall be upon them. (KJV)

The Hebrew word that refers to laying with someone is "shakab"

In the English language, an example of this point would be like referring to sex by just simply saying "sex" or saying "stick your penis in her vagina". Both mean the same thing with the difference being one is in a descriptive form. So with these points in mind, I can't rule out that when Genesis 2:24 mentions, "the two shall become one flesh" that that doesn't refer to a descriptive way of saying sex or a way of saying the man will join his wife in sexual intercourse. This would mean that the word "flesh" in Genesis 2:24 (in Hebrew meaning male sex organ) being the uniting feature as opposed to a family union or spiritual union.

Also refer to 1 Corinthians 6:15-16 where Paul mentions that you can become 'one flesh' with a prostitute. That of course would have nothing to do with a family union or any marriage.

[In reference to Genesis 2: 19-24]
It also should be noted that the Hebrew did have a word which covered sexual intercourse, (yada) and this word is lacking in the sequence of events in Genesis 2: 19-24).

Indeed the narrative links the idea of "one flesh", not with intercourse, as is the case of the conception of Cain (see Ge 4: 1), but with the presenting of Eve to Adam. In this passage we see, #1) Eve created, #2) God bringing her to Adam #3) Adam declaration in poetry that she is 'flesh of his flesh' and #4) the narrative conclusion that male-female unions that follow this model are permanent arrangements commenting that "a man must STICK to his wife (or woman) and they must become 'one flesh'.

In short, rather than implying that Adam had sex with his wife and this act caused them to became "one flesh", the passage indicates it was the presentation of Eve sight of God that forged the union.

By looking at the words in Genesis 2:24 just based on word meanings, the passages do not refer to a family union except in the first part where it talks about the man joining his wife. The rest of the passage in reference to 'one flesh', meaning-wise, does not refer to a family but simply a uniting of bodies which can be a descriptive way of saying sex. Some believe sex can be a spiritual or at least a mental thing just as much as a physical thing. So perhaps, this passage symbolizes aspects of sex beyond just the physical component as opposed to all the things that you and Slopeshoulder bring up like family union, permanency, sacrifice, etc.

Also, some of your points aren't coherent with Christian theology. Marriage is not a permanent thing because you can divorce or one of the spouses could die. If a married couple were one permanent body or a union then divorce or death would not separate the two but yet in reality they do. Even in the afterlife, we will all be like the angels, unmarried (Mark 12:25). It also does not square with Paul's usage of the reference regarding two becoming one, (1 Corinthians 6:15-16)

The context of Jesus quotation of the above Genesis account at Mat 19: 5, 6 sheds further light on how this expression should be understood.

If we go by all of the New Testament, then Paul's views on the topic would also shed some light like in 1 Corinthians 6:15-16. I already mentioned this passage earlier in this posts.

Jesus stated that adultery (which usually involves penile-vaginal penetration) violated or breaks the divine mandate to become "one flesh". If this union can be broken or disolved by an subsequent act it is clearly a state of continued existence.

I don't agree here so far if you're using one flesh to mean differently than sexual intercourse. I'm not convinced that 'one flesh' means marriage because there's reason to believe it means sex, like Paul's use of the reference to 'one flesh' in the context of sex with a prostitute and there's NO marriage there in that event (1 Corinthians 6:15-16.).

Further one might ask, if the physical penetration of a penis into a vigina renders the individuals "one flesh" what is to be made of the divine law that rapists be punished or that even concentual sexual intercourse be viewed as unlawful under certain circumstances (possibly punishable by death)? Clearly Jesus is refering to more therefore than just a physical copulation but a state of "ownership" or unity of kinship, that was divinely binding and broken by only by legal declaration.

The rapists is NOT punished if he has forced sex with a woman who is SINGLE and that's because adultery is having sex with a MARRIED women. Refer to Deuteronomy 22:28 which covers this issue and even mentions for the rapist to marry his victim. Even consensual sex is not unlawful just as long as the woman does not belong to another man (Exodus 22:16). Polygamy is allowed as well so even a married man can have sex with different women and that not be adultery unless he didn't intend to marry those other women.

Your premises are wrong as I've tried to show so I don't agree with your conclusions regarding Jesus referring to ownership when he makes reference of 'one flesh'.

CONCLUSION While it may be poetically satisfying to see the obvious paralles between the physical act of sexual intercourse and the biblical expression, it is somewhat of a wild extrapolation of the scriptural use of the words to suggest that "echad baser" is refering specifically to copulation, especially as other words and expressions (such as the hebrew word "yada" - see Genesis 4:1) cover the sexual act. It is much more contextually justifiable to conclude that "echad baser" refers to the CONTINUED existence of a man and a woman in as a divinely contracted (permanent) family UNIT.

You've showed that there's one term for sexual intercourse in the Hebrew (yada) and I've added to that to show that there can also be descriptive references (e.g. "shakab" in Leviticus 20:13). Marriage is not necessarily a permanent contract, it is just a contract. It does not extend beyond death nor beyond divorce, of course. There is precedent both meaning-wise for the terms 'one flesh' to refer to sex (with 'basar' which can mean male sexual organ esp. in Leviticus 15:2-3 in the KJV where the word "flesh" is mentioned) and also with Paul's explanation of 'one flesh' in 1 Corinthians 6:15-16.