According to the Gaurdian "IOC rules transgender athletes can take part in Olympics without surgery.
Female-to-male athletes can compete ‘without restriction’, while male-to-female athletes must undergo hormone therapy, according to new guidelines."
Why the discrimination? If the transgendered can compete in the group with which they identify, why the different rules? Apart from physiology, what is the difference between a race run by a woman and one run by a man? If physiology is no longer the determinant, why even have male and female events?
Title IX on steroids.
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Neatras
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Re: Title IX on steroids.
Post #2[Replying to post 1 by bluethread]
The "discrimination" is based entirely on physiology. I don't understand why that's not the immediately obvious answer. Sexual dimorphism has dictated that the differences between sexes can manifest in the form of physical prowess.
Female-to-male athletes are not considered to be any "likelier" to excel beyond naturally male counterparts.
Male-to-female athletes are considered "likelier" to excel beyond naturally female counterparts. This is based on statistical evidence.
Compensating for these differences is no more discrimination than providing a paraplegic with a wheelchair, and not providing one to someone with full motor function.
The "discrimination" is based entirely on physiology. I don't understand why that's not the immediately obvious answer. Sexual dimorphism has dictated that the differences between sexes can manifest in the form of physical prowess.
Female-to-male athletes are not considered to be any "likelier" to excel beyond naturally male counterparts.
Male-to-female athletes are considered "likelier" to excel beyond naturally female counterparts. This is based on statistical evidence.
Compensating for these differences is no more discrimination than providing a paraplegic with a wheelchair, and not providing one to someone with full motor function.
