Hello everyone,
Just a few questions I've had for a while.
I would really appreciate some literalist input on this, but if "liberals" (generic sense) know what sort of theological answers various sorts of literalists would typically give to these questions, please write them down if you are able and willing.
1. Were Adam and Eve created with "free will"?
2. Did they initially have knowledge of good and evil?
3. Is it "evil" to disobey God?
4. Assuming that any transgression against God is (the definition of?) "evil", how is it meaningful to say that Adam and Eve transgressed against God to the point where perfect justice and love entails that billions of people must suffer - some extremely - and perhaps even be tortured eternally (or extensively), as they ate the forbidden fruit when they didn't have knowledge of good and evil in the first place?
5. Is Satan more powerful, knowledgeable and cunning than the first humans?
6. What does "free will" mean? Is it correct to say that it is something like "the proposition that you can make a (somehow differently than if you're lacking it) meaningful choice between good and evil"?
Any kind of answer/speculation will do just fine for this thread.
Biblical references would be great, but are not required.
The debate (more like discussion) element of this thread will consist in the dialog which will be enabled by the various answers to these questions which I hope I will get.
I'd like this thread to remain in the TDD forum because of the discussion format I have in mind, but if a moderator believes its place is elsewhere I don't have any serious issues with its being moved.
Thank you.
-Woland
Adam and Eve
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Post #151
ttruscott said:
Genesis 3: 21 The LORD God made garments of skin for Adam and his wife and clothed them. 22 And the LORD God said, "The man has now become like one of us, knowing good and evil. He must not be allowed to reach out his hand and take also from the tree of life and eat, and live forever."
This has always bothered me. If there is only one God, and He is the one speaking in this passage, then two things pop out at me.
1) Who is he speaking to?
2) Why does God refer to Adam and Eve becoming one of US? In the plural sense.
Answer:
1. So what is wrong with taking this statement at it's face value? What is your problem with this communication of God the Father and His Son Jehovah (Jesus Christ)?
2. Did not Christ overcome the world and earn the right to become like his father?
Did not Christ become =an heir of all that the father had?
The scriptures also declare that we may also become heirs and joint heirs with Christ. That being the case it appears entirely appropriate that the statement would apply to Adam as well.
Genesis 3: 21 The LORD God made garments of skin for Adam and his wife and clothed them. 22 And the LORD God said, "The man has now become like one of us, knowing good and evil. He must not be allowed to reach out his hand and take also from the tree of life and eat, and live forever."
This has always bothered me. If there is only one God, and He is the one speaking in this passage, then two things pop out at me.
1) Who is he speaking to?
2) Why does God refer to Adam and Eve becoming one of US? In the plural sense.
Answer:
1. So what is wrong with taking this statement at it's face value? What is your problem with this communication of God the Father and His Son Jehovah (Jesus Christ)?
2. Did not Christ overcome the world and earn the right to become like his father?
Did not Christ become =an heir of all that the father had?
The scriptures also declare that we may also become heirs and joint heirs with Christ. That being the case it appears entirely appropriate that the statement would apply to Adam as well.
