John 1:1-2Cor 4:4

[kjw47]

Any can look up the way they are written in Greek-- At both spots the Greek word for the true God ends in a v=God, capitol G. -- Both the word and satan' Greek word ends in a g= god small g= 100% fact-- Trinity religions are false religion. Translating works the same at both spots. Billions have been mislead by an error of a capitol G God in the last line at John 1:1-- Only found in altered translations( removal of Gods name in over 7000 places by satans will) so guess whose will had a error capitol G put in the last line at John 1:1? Even though the Greek lexicons show its error. The trinity scholars have to know its error. If they said something hundreds if not thousands of religions claiming to be christian are exposed as false religion, Billions of $$$ lost each year, and probably sued by 2 billion humans as well, because they know they teach lies. Owned and operated by satan, like this-2 Cor 11:12-15)--misleading all into breaking Gods #1 commandment daily.--RUN FROM THEM.

[onewithhim]

If "god" has the article, it means "God." If there is no article it means that the individual is one of many. There are many gods that men worship, however the Word is one that is acceptable to the true God.

So, in Jn. 1:6, 12, 13; 3:2, 21; 6:45; 8:54; 9:16, 33; 13:3; 16:30; 19:7; 20:17(2); 1 Jn. 3:2; 4:12; 2 Jn. 3, 9; Rev. 21:7, these reference one of many gods instead of God?

I looked at half of these references so far, and I have to concede that there is not always the article before God (meaning Jehovah, the Father). John 6:45 has the article, as well as John 9:16 and 2 Corinthians 4:5; John 13:3 has no article, yet in verse 4 there is the article. Many verses did not show the article before God. I have to come to the conclusion that the context matters in these verses. I think that JehovahsWitness explained that in a recent post.

[The Tanager]

I looked at half of these references so far, and I have to concede that there is not always the article before God (meaning Jehovah, the Father). John 6:45 has the article, as well as John 9:16 and 2 Corinthians 4:5; John 13:3 has no article, yet in verse 4 there is the article. Many verses did not show the article before God. I have to come to the conclusion that the context matters in these verses. I think that JehovahsWitness explained that in a recent post.

I agree that context is important in figuring these verses out. I admire your willingness to check on it and get back to me with your thoughts.

Can you help me see why you think John 6:45 and John 9:16 have the article? John 6:45 reads “...Kai esontai pantes didaktoi Theou...” which looks like no article to me. John 9:16 reads “...Ouk estin houtos para Theou ho anthropos…” where man has an article, but not God.

[onewithhim]

I looked at half of these references so far, and I have to concede that there is not always the article before God (meaning Jehovah, the Father). John 6:45 has the article, as well as John 9:16 and 2 Corinthians 4:5; John 13:3 has no article, yet in verse 4 there is the article. Many verses did not show the article before God. I have to come to the conclusion that the context matters in these verses. I think that JehovahsWitness explained that in a recent post.

I agree that context is important in figuring these verses out. I admire your willingness to check on it and get back to me with your thoughts.

Can you help me see why you think John 6:45 and John 9:16 have the article? John 6:45 reads “...Kai esontai pantes didaktoi Theou...” which looks like no article to me. John 9:16 reads “...Ouk estin houtos para Theou ho anthropos…” where man has an article, but not God.

Hendrickson's Interlinear Bible shows that God has the article in John 6:45. I wish I could write the Greek, but all I can do is using our alphabet. It says: Kai esontai pantes olbaktoi tov Oeov. John 9:16: "not is from - God" shows "tov Oeov" over the English. There is the article, at least that is what it looks like to me. Am I understanding what the article looks like? And I guess it comes down to which Interlinear we are using.

[The Tanager]

[Replying to onewithhim in post #23]

I don't know Greek either. I was using biblehub.com. From my understanding, they use the critical text, while the Hendrickson is based off the Textus Receptus. Do you have an opinion on the differences between Greek texts?

[Eddie Ramos]

Any can look up the way they are written in Greek-- At both spots the Greek word for the true God ends in a v=God, capitol G. -- Both the word and satan' Greek word ends in a g= god small g= 100% fact-- Trinity religions are false religion. Translating works the same at both spots. Billions have been mislead by an error of a capitol G God in the last line at John 1:1-- Only found in altered translations( removal of Gods name in over 7000 places by satans will) so guess whose will had a error capitol G put in the last line at John 1:1? Even though the Greek lexicons show its error. The trinity scholars have to know its error. If they said something hundreds if not thousands of religions claiming to be christian are exposed as false religion, Billions of $$$ lost each year, and probably sued by 2 billion humans as well, because they know they teach lies. Owned and operated by satan, like this-2 Cor 11:12-15)--misleading all into breaking Gods #1 commandment daily.--RUN FROM THEM.

Not sure whose "rule" you are following but that "rule" doesn't come from the scriptures. What does come from the scriptures is agreement within the Bible as one whole.

Deuteronomy 19:15 (KJV 1900)
One witness shall not rise up against a man for any iniquity, or for any sin, in any sin that he sinneth: at the mouth of two witnesses, or at the mouth of three witnesses, shall the matter (the WORD) be established.

Hebrews 12:1 (KJV 1900)
Wherefore seeing we also are compassed about with so great a cloud of witnesses, let us lay aside every weight, and the sin which doth so easily beset us, and let us run with patience the race that is set before us,


1 John 5:7–8 (KJV 1900)
7 For there are three that bear record (witness) in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. 8 And there are three that bear witness in earth, the spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one.

This means that any conclusion we arrive at in our doctrines, must be in agreement with everything else the Bible has to say on the matter. Therefore your use of John 1:1 as an example or "prof" of your claim being "100% fact" is proven incorrect by the whole of the scriptures.

John 1:1 (KJV 1900)
IN the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

First, it should be noted that the use of a capital "G" or lowercase "g" in the English translation of any Bible does not determine who is in view. This was done by the translators to assist the reader in making that determination, but since no translation was inspired by God, then every translation is subject to error and thus correction in their translation. So, how does one go about to determine whether the word "theos" or "theon" is referring to the one true God or to a false god? By the context of the scriptures as a whole.

Verse 14 gives us a little more information in telling us that the Word was made flesh and dwelt among mankind.

John 1:14 (KJV 1900)
And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

This is then clearly speaking of Christ who was said to come. This same Christ was foretold of in the Old Testament. Let's read it to find out more of who he is:

Jeremiah 33:16 (KJV 1900)
In those days shall Judah be saved, and Jerusalem shall dwell safely: and this is the name wherewith she shall be called, JEHOVAH our righteousness.


The name of the coming Christ was JEHOVAH OUR RIGHTEOUSNESS. And as we know, in the Bible, names teach us more about the one named. This is why God himself has many names, because they all teach us more about Him and who He is. In Jeremiah 33:16 we learn that the Christ's name is JEHOVAH. If this is a correct understanding on our part, then everywhere we look in the Bible, we should find agreement and not contradictions.

Isaiah 9:6 (KJV 1900)
For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given:
And the government shall be upon his shoulder:
And his name shall be called Wonderful, Counseller, The mighty God,
The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.

One of the names of this coming son is "The everlasting Father". How can it be that a son be born unto the people of Israel and his name be called "The everlasting Father"? Isn't that GOD's name alone? Yes it is. Now we can head into the New Testament and continue to see the same harmony with the understanding we have.

Matthew 1:23 (KJV 1900)
Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.


The one true God, who is The Word, became flesh and dwelt among mankind. To this, every passage I just quoted harmonizes perfectly. And this is not the only way to check and double check our conclusion for accuracy. Another way is to study the phrase "Ego Eimi" (I AM) which is exclusively used of Christ as he uses it to identify himself as JEHOVAH did to Moses.

So, the "rule" you are following has no biblical basis which is why it is leading many who follow it astray.

The same can be said with verses like 2 Corinthians 4:4. While the translators translated this word as "god" to make clear that the implication is Satan and not GOD, they have made a huge error in doing so. The context of the Bible will not allow this to be referring to Satan, but it can only be referring to the one true God who has done the blinding.

2 Corinthians 4:4 (KJV 1900)
In whom the GOD(emphasis mine) of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them.

[JehovahsWitness]

Jeremiah 33:16 (KJV 1900)
In those days shall Judah be saved, and Jerusalem shall dwell safely: and this is the name wherewith she shall be called, JEHOVAH our righteousness.

Theophoric names were not uncommon are in Jewish culture and many people and places were given them. This does not mean that those having or associated with the name are actually Almighty God themselves.

THEOPHORIC (from Greek: θεόφορος, theophoros, literally "bearing or carrying a god") embeds the word equivalent of 'god' or God's name in a person's name, reflecting something about the character of the person so named in relation to that deity. For example the bible nzme ELISABETH can be rendered in Hebrew, "God of Plenty” that does not mean she was actually Almighty God

Some more examples of theophoric names ...

EL-ijah - my GOD is Jah
Gabri-EL - Mighty man of GOD
EL-isha - GOD Is Salvation
Dani-EL - My Judge Is GOD
Samu-EL - Name of GOD
Jo-EL - Jehovah Is GOD

JEREMIAH 33:16 NWT

In those days Judah will be saved and Jerusalem will reside in security.+ And this is what she will be called: Jehovah Is Our Righteousness.’”

In this, JERUSALEM'S prophetic name simply provides a guarantee of future Messianic blessings for God's people.There is nothing in the verse that indicates said Messiah will be equal in rank power or age to YHWH the Almighty.


Does In Jeremiah 33:16 say that Christ's name is JEHOVAH? No it does nothing of the kind. The term is being applied here to Jerusalem not to the Messiah. Jerusalem is a city not Almighty God.



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GOD, THE DIVINE NAME and ... THE "TRINITY TEXTS" DEBUNKED

[Eddie Ramos]

[Replying to JehovahsWitness in post #26]

You are correct regarding Jeremiah 33:16. The mistake was mine in posting the wrong verse because it is very closely worded. Here is the correct verse that speaks of Christ as JEHOVAH OUR RIGHTEOUSNESS.

Jeremiah 23:5-6 (KJV) 5 Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will raise unto David a righteous Branch, and a King shall reign and prosper, and shall execute judgment and justice in the earth. 6 In his days Judah shall be saved, and Israel shall dwell safely: and this is his name whereby he shall be called, JEHOVAH OUR RIGHTEOUSNESS.

[MissKate13]

[Replying to Eddie Ramos in post #25]

Thank you for your most excellent post, Eddie Ramos!

[MissKate13]

[Replying to Eddie Ramos in post #27]

Thanks for clearing it up!

[MissKate13]

[Replying to kjw47 in post #1]

Theos and Theon are the same exact words, both meaning God. The “OS” ending shows that it is the subject of the sentence. The “ON” ending shows it is the object of the sentence. In either case, BOTH ARE God with a capital G.

More on this later